Ghada said:
Paul calls this striving about words to no effect. The Bible does not make difference between 'accounted' as righteous and 'being' righteous.
The Bible does make a difference between "accounted as righteous" (Romans 4:2-6) and
"shown to be righteous." (James 2:21,24)
In the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, the Greek word for
justified "dikaioo" #1344.
Thayer's Greek Lexicon:
1. to render righteous or such he ought to be
2.
to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered
3. to declare, pronounce, one to be just, righteous, or such as he ought to be
Strongs's #1344: dikaioo - Greek/Hebrew Definitions - Bible Tools
No problem. And when those works are done, only then we are justified by them with God.
Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
Nothing comes by faith without works, but death without God, because that faith is dead to God.
Big problem. In James 2:21, notice closely that James does not say that Abraham's work of offering up Isaac resulted in God accounting Abraham as righteous. The
accounting of Abraham's faith as righteousness was made in Genesis 15:6,
many years before his work of offering up Isaac recorded in Genesis 22. The work of Abraham did not have some kind of intrinsic merit to account him as righteous, but it
showed or manifested the genuineness of his faith. (James 2:18) That is the "sense" in which Abraham was "justified by works." He was
shown to be righteous.
So, Abraham was
accounted as righteous based on his faith (Genesis 15:6)
not his works (Romans 4:2-3) long before the work of offering up Isaac on the altar in Genesis 22. Once again, James is not using the word "justified" here to mean "accounted as righteous" but is
shown to be righteous. James is discussing the
evidence of faith (
says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and
not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God. (Romans 4:2-3) Let that sink in.
True. Paul clarifies that we are not saved by works of righteousness which we have done without Christ. (Gal 5) No past works of our own qualify us for being saved by God.
Works of righteousness are works done in righteousness, so they are not apart from Christ. No past, present or future works in general qualify us for being saved by God. (Romans 4:5-6; Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9) We are not saved by works. Period.
Pau;l never says we are saved by faith alone, by faith without works, nor by any works at all, which would contradict James 2.
Paul said that we are saved by grace through faith,
not works (Ephesians 2:8,9) and that
God imputes righteousness apart from works. (Romans 4:6) Hence, faith alone. The Bible clearly states in many passages of scripture that we are saved through belief/faith
"apart from additions or modifications." (Luke 7:50; 8:12; John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 11:17; 13:39; 15:9; 16:31; 26:18; Romans 1:16; 3:24-28; 4:5; 5:1; 10:4; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Galatians 2:16; 3:6-9, 26; Ephesians 2:8; Philippians 3:9; 2 Timothy 3:15; Hebrews 10:39; 1 John 5:13 etc..).
Now you don't need to add the word "alone" next to "belief/faith" in each of these passages of scripture in order to figure out that the words, "belief/faith"
stand alone in connection with receiving eternal life/salvation. Hence, FAITH ALONE. Do these many passages of scripture say belief/faith "plus something else?" Plus, works? NO. So, then it's
faith (rightly understood) in Christ alone. Not to be confused with an
empty profession of faith/dead faith that remains "alone" -
barren of works. (James 2:14-24)
That includes Romans 2 and James 1, where only the doers of the word are justified by God, and not the hearers only.
Which also includes John saying only the doers of righteousness and the truth are born of God. Which Jesus confirms by saying only the doers of the will of God are His family.
In regard to the doers of the law in Romans 2:13, you need to examine this verse in CONTEXT. Paul was talking to the Jews (continue to read on in
Romans 2:17-24) about their judging of the Gentiles and then points them to their own law (standard of judgment) and hypocrisy and tells them that the doers of the law will be justified before God (verse 13). That leaves them out, along with everyone else (
Romans 3:22-28;
Galatians 2:16).
The standard they wanted to measure up to was the law. Paul was telling them that the doers of the law will be justified. So, obey the law, obey all of it, but if you don’t obey all of it, you failed! He tells them that the Gentiles who didn't have the law according to the knowledge of the Jews were instinctively doing the things of the law (verse 14) and will be judged accordingly. How much more so the Jews? Paul was showing the self-righteous Jews who judged the Gentiles that they were not able to measure up to the perfect standard of the law. They were hypocrites.
This is why Paul tells us in the very next chapter in
Romans 3:28 that we are justified by faith apart from the works of the law. No one was able to perfectly obey the law (which includes the 10 commandments) except for Jesus Christ. If you fail even once (stumble in one point), then you become guilty of all.
James 2:10, "For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles in one point, he has become guilty of all."
Galatians 3:10, For as many as are of the works of the law are under a curse; for it is written, "cursed is everyone who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, to perform them." The Jews could only be justified before God by keeping the Law, but he or she has to be 100% perfect, which is impossible! A person can’t fail even once, not ever. But all have failed (
Romans 3:23; 6:23), that is why man is justified before God by faith and not by works of the law. (
Romans 3:24-28; Galatians 2:16; Philippians 3:9 etc..).
CONTINUED...