Often, it is. Joel 2:32a everyone who calls on the name of the LORD [H3068 Yahweh] will be saved;
Brenton Septuagint Translation:
Conventionally, H3068 is translated as G2962.
Romans 10:12 For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile—the same Lord [G2962]
This is the same Greek word corresponding to the OT Hebrew word for YHWH. In a sense, it says "Jesus is Yahweh". Not convinced?
No.
More contextual evidence follows:
Does it?
12 For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile—the same Lord [G2962]
The OT YHWH is the same Lord of the Gentiles.
Not so......
The title “Lord” is the equivalent of “Sir” or “Master” in English.
Can we imagine the Sovereign of the Universe being addressed as “Sir” or “Master”?
Strongs defines “
kyrios” as....
“he to whom a person or thing belongs, about which he has power of deciding; master, lord.
- the possessor and disposer of a thing
- the owner; one who has control of the person, the master
- in the state: the sovereign, prince, chief, the Roman emperor
- is a title of honour expressive of respect and reverence, with which servants greet their master.”
The God of Israel was one God and he had only one name.....YHWH. (Deut 6:4; Psalm 83:18 KJV)
Not once in all of scripture is Jesus ever called YHWH.
Jesus is the “holy servant” of his God and Father. (Acts 4:27)
1 Tim 2:5...
“For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, a man, Christ Jesus”.
Jesus is the mediator
between God and men.....a mediator cannot be one of the parties. He is the one who facilitates communication between two estranged parties.
Paul directly linked Joel 2:32's YHWH to Romans 10:9a's "Jesus is Lord". The evidence and linkage are strong. In Paul's mind, they were the same in the context of Romans 10:13.
Since the original quote is from the Hebrew Scriptures, and the Tetragrammaton is clearly seen in the text, Joel 2:32 declares that calling on the name of YHWH (Yahweh/Jehovah) is what will result in salvation.
Calling on the name of the wrong God will not.
G2962 occurs 722 times. Not every time it refers to YHWH.
Since “Lord” is a title of respect, both Jesus and his God are referred to by that title.
Context determines who is being addressed.
Matt 2:13...
“Now when they had gone, behold, an angel of the Lord G2962 appeared to Joseph in a dream and said, “Getup! Take the Child and His mother and flee to Egypt, and remain there until I tell you; for Herod is going to search for the Child to destroy Him.”
Who is “the angel of the Lord” here? Jesus is an infant and Joseph is being instructed to take action or save his life. This is clearly “an angel of Jehovah”.
Matt 3:3...is quoting Isa 40:3....
“A voice is calling,
“Clear the way for the LORD in the wilderness;
Make smooth in the desert a highway for our God.’”
The LORD here is Yahweh/Jehovah....
“יהוה about 6823 i.e. יַהְוֶה proper name, of deity Yahweh, the proper name of the God of Israel” (Strongs)
The title “Lord” is not just used for God.
