Jesus Christ Asserts Himself As YAHWEH

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tigger 2

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Here it is

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

"The Word", 1st Person, then "the Word" is "WITH God" 2nd Person, which is literally, "in the presence of another". Then it says that "The Word was God". But not the same as the God Who He is WITH, as the Greek would have to be different. Instead of "προς τον θεον", John would have had to have wtitten "εν τον θεον", and also for the last clause, "και ο θεος ην ο λογος", instead of what is written, "και θεος ην ο λογος". There is no way that the Greek allows for The Word Who is God, to be identical to the God Who He is WITH. Here it is clear that TWO distinct Persons are meant.

Not only is the Word (logos) not the God whom he is with, but he is literally not the God at all. My personal studies of the NT Greek grammar used by John show that John 1:1c literally meant "and the word was a god." A few trinitarian Greek experts dare to agree, but choose to 'interpret' it as "God" for obvious reasons.

Here is my proof:
Examining the Trinity: John 1:1c Primer - For Grammatical Rules That Supposedly "Prove" the Trinity

Others: Examining the Trinity

Examining the Trinity: QUAL ("Qualitative" John 1:1c)
 

Cooper

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Not only is the Word (logos) not the God whom he is with, but he is literally not the God at all. My personal studies of the NT Greek grammar used by John show that John 1:1c meant "and the word was a god." A few trinitarian Greek experts dare to agree, but choose to 'interpret' it as "God" for obvious reasons.

Here is my proof:
Examining the Trinity: John 1:1c Primer - For Grammatical Rules That Supposedly "Prove" the Trinity

Others: Examining the Trinity

Examining the Trinity: QUAL ("Qualitative" John 1:1c)
Watchtower alert.
.
 

Riverwalker

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Not only is the Word (logos) not the God whom he is with, but he is literally not the God at all.
That Word not only IS God, but He created EVERYTHING and without Him nothing that was made, was made

John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made.

14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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God the Father, God the Son on earth. One omnipresent God in heaven and on earth.
.

You will notice that the verse starts with "in the beginning" which is beyond that of Genesis 1.1 to eternity. Creation is mentioned in verse 3. So this verse 1 refers to the eternal relationship between the Word and the Father, as 2 distinct Persons
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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Not only is the Word (logos) not the God whom he is with, but he is literally not the God at all. My personal studies of the NT Greek grammar used by John show that John 1:1c literally meant "and the word was a god." A few trinitarian Greek experts dare to agree, but choose to 'interpret' it as "God" for obvious reasons.

Here is my proof:
Examining the Trinity: John 1:1c Primer - For Grammatical Rules That Supposedly "Prove" the Trinity

Others: Examining the Trinity

Examining the Trinity: QUAL ("Qualitative" John 1:1c)

Do you really understand what you have written
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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That Word not only IS God, but He created EVERYTHING and without Him nothing that was made, was made

John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made.

14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.

Jesus Created everything with the Father and the Holy Spirit
 

tigger 2

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"There are none so blind as those who will not see." Or those who refuse to look at carefully done PERSONAL studies that would factually inform them.
 

Cooper

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You will notice that the verse starts with "in the beginning" which is beyond that of Genesis 1.1 to eternity. Creation is mentioned in verse 3. So this verse 1 refers to the eternal relationship between the Word and the Father, as 2 distinct Persons
What confuses people, is that the one God came in the LIKENESS of man.
.
 

Truman

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In my mind, I see Jesus to my left, Holy Spirit to my right, and Father between these two, but a little bit set back from them.
In my rough, limited way, I see God like this: I am a two-dimensional image trying to comprehend a three-dimensional image.
He is one, and yet He is three. He is beyond my capability to comprehend, which is why Jesus used parables to describe Him, His kingdom, etc.
After seeing His glory, I said, "He is awesome beyond words!"
"His dominion is an eternal dominion, His Kingdom endures from generation to generation." He is Sovereign!
 

Amazed@grace

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futurum, ubi non sunt atheus troglodytae
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I am holding to my own Greek grammar studies for almost 40 years! If you can show that I am in error, then please feel free to show me. I am very much open to correction and learning, as we all what the Truth of what the Bible teaches.

The Septuagint and New Testament were written in Koine (common) Greek.
Perhaps this below, a small excerpt, will help to assure you in your Greek studies that Jesus was God.
Logos =
What Does the Bible Say About Logos?

Excerpt:
In the Granville Sharp Rule, when two singular, personal, non-proper substantives of the same case joined by kai are governed by a single article, the same person is usually being referred to. We see this in Titus 2:13.

Titus 2:13, “tou megalou theou kai soteirous 'eimon Yeisou christou.”
Tou = Article, Genitive, Singular
Theou = Noun, Genitive, Singular
Kai = Conjunction (Copulative Kai)
Soteirous = Noun, Genitive, Singular.

"When the copulative kai connects two nouns of the same case, if the article ho or any of its cases precedes the first of the said nouns or participles, and is not repeated before the second noun or participle, the latter always relates to the same person that is expressed or described by the first noun or participle" (A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament, p. 147).
The Official Blog of Duane Cartujano : Is the Granville Sharp Rule refuted by the text of Psalm 35:23?

As should this if we take John 1 as written and bring verses together that are separated otherwise by other verses. This to provide a singular message in the text. The Greek Interlinear bible version is also at this link. John 1 MOUNCE;KJV;NIV - In the beginning was the Word, and the - Bible Gateway

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 The same was in the beginning with God.14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
 
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ByGraceThroughFaith

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Not only is the Word (logos) not the God whom he is with, but he is literally not the God at all. My personal studies of the NT Greek grammar used by John show that John 1:1c literally meant "and the word was a god." A few trinitarian Greek experts dare to agree, but choose to 'interpret' it as "God" for obvious reasons.

Here is my proof:
Examining the Trinity: John 1:1c Primer - For Grammatical Rules That Supposedly "Prove" the Trinity

Others: Examining the Trinity

Examining the Trinity: QUAL ("Qualitative" John 1:1c)

Here is John 1:1 as found in the Emphatic Diaglott New Testament, published by the Watchtower.

1.png 2.png 3.png

Here is the New World Translation reading for Isaiah 9:6, which is a Prophecy for the Birth of Jesus Christ

isaiah9.6.png
 

Amazed@grace

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In my almost 40 years of being a born again Christian, I have NEVER even once doubted this. Even before I took up Greek studies, which was to witness to Jehovah's Witnesses!
Then I must have misunderstood your prior posts wherein in appeared you were saying Jesus and God were distinct and separate person's.
My apologies.