Jesus Christ Asserts Himself As YAHWEH

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Jesus cannnot be a distinct person from the father and also be God

Why not? If you had a son, he is a distinct person from you, and also a human being by nature, like you are. Likewise with Jesus Christ, He is a distinct Person to the Father and Holy Spirit, but like Them, essentially God.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

The Diaglott "Defense"

18 Trinitarian apologist Bowser (What Every Jehovah's Witness Should Know) concludes his misinterpretation of Colwell's Rule with this further misinformation:

"Incidentally, the LITERAL translation that accompanies the Greek text [of John 1:1c] in the Emphatic Diaglott also bears witness to the fact that `the Logos (Word) was God.'" - pp. 57-58.

This is completely dishonest and Bowser must know that. He also knows that an uninformed person glancing at John 1:1 in the Diaglott would probably agree with his dishonest statement.

As you may know (and Bowser certainly knows), The Emphatic Diaglott is an interlinear translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures. It has the literal, word-for-word translation along with the Greek text on the left-hand page and there it has "and a god was the Word" at John 1:1c. On the right-hand page it has an emphatic translation which is "based upon that in the left-hand column."

"In this [right-hand] column the EMPHATIC SIGNS are introduced, by which the Greek words of Emphasis are designated ....
".... [This peculiar system of emphasis] of the Greek language cannot be properly expressed in English except by the use of typographical signs, such as, Initial Capital Letters, italics, SMALL CAPITALS, and CAPITALS." - p. 8, Diaglott introduction.


19 So, you see, the literal left-hand column for John 1:1 in the Diaglott uses capitalization according to standard English usage: "In a beginning...the Word was with the God, and a god was the Word."

But, in the right-hand column the translator uses capitalization to show what degree of emphasis was being put upon the various words in the original NT Greek!

Therefore, in the right-hand column it reads: "In the Beginning...the LOGOS was with GOD, and the LOGOS was God."

Notice that "LOGOS" is all capitals and the first "GOD" is also all capitals. This merely shows a certain degree of emphasis found in the original Greek! Now notice the second "God" has only an initial capital letter. This, too, merely denotes another type of emphasis found in the original NT Greek!

Also, Bowser has dishonestly "quoted" the Diaglott: "the Logos (Word) was God." He didn't capitalize "LOGOS" as it actually was in the Diaglott (all capitals) but did capitalize "God" as it appeared—the second time (with an initial capital letter)...the first usage which actually denoted the only true God was in all capitals: "GOD."

To show that "God" in the right-hand column does not have to mean "the only true God," let's look at Acts 28:6 in the Diaglott. The literal left-hand column says: "they said, A god him to be." But the emphatic right-hand column says: "they said, `He is a God.'" I don't think you will find many (if any) Bible translators who have decided that these pagans were calling Paul "the only true God." It is clear (as shown in the left-hand column) that the Diaglott intends "he is a god," but, because of the method used to show Greek emphasis, "god" is written with an initial capital letter in the emphatic right-hand column!

Read what it actually says in the introduction of this version, about the English reading in the right hand



"This rendering is based upon that in the left hand Column, and the labors of many talented Critics and Translators of the Scriptures"

Which is very clear, "and the Logos was God", NOT "a god".

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

When Jesus taught us to pray to, "Our Father" guess who we are praying to. We are praying to the I AM, the WORD.

There is only ONE God and His NAME on earth is JESUS.
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Then can you explain, WHY Jesus speaks to the Father, and does so in the SECOND Person singluar? For example:

"So they took away the stone. And Jesus lifted up his eyes, and said, Father, I thank thee that thou heardest me. And I knew that thou hearest me always: but because of the multitude that standeth around I said it, that they may believe that thou didst send me." (John 11:41-42)

Firstly Jesus "lifted up his eyes, and said, Father", which shows that "the Father" is in heaven.
Secondly, Jesus says to "the Father", "thee that thou heardest", σοι οτι ηκουσας, which is in the SECOND Person, meaning that Jesus was Speaking to Someone OTHER than Himself. English grammar will tell you this. The words in verse 42 are the same, addressed to ANOTHER Person, OTHER than Jesus Christ. Jesus also says that God the Father SENT Him
Thirdly, in John 16:16-17, Jesus says, "A little while, and ye shall not see me: and again, a little while, and ye shall see me, because I go to the Father. Then said some of his disciples among themselves, What is this that he saith unto us, A little while, and ye shall not see me: and again, a little while, and ye shall see me: and, Because I go to the Father?" In the Greek, "to" the Father, is the preposition, "πρός", which literally means, "to the side of" the Father. This is clear that the Father cannot be the same Person as Jesus Christ!

 

[Cooper]

Then can you explain, WHY Jesus speaks to the Father, and does so in the SECOND Person singluar? For example:

"So they took away the stone. And Jesus lifted up his eyes, and said, Father, I thank thee that thou heardest me. And I knew that thou hearest me always: but because of the multitude that standeth around I said it, that they may believe that thou didst send me." (John 11:41-42)

Firstly Jesus "lifted up his eyes, and said, Father", which shows that "the Father" is in heaven.
Secondly, Jesus says to "the Father", "thee that thou heardest", σοι οτι ηκουσας, which is in the SECOND Person, meaning that Jesus was Speaking to Someone OTHER than Himself. English grammar will tell you this. The words in verse 42 are the same, addressed to ANOTHER Person, OTHER than Jesus Christ. Jesus also says that God the Father SENT Him
Thirdly, in John 16:16-17, Jesus says, "A little while, and ye shall not see me: and again, a little while, and ye shall see me, because I go to the Father. Then said some of his disciples among themselves, What is this that he saith unto us, A little while, and ye shall not see me: and again, a little while, and ye shall see me: and, Because I go to the Father?" In the Greek, "to" the Father, is the preposition, "πρός", which literally means, "to the side of" the Father. This is clear that the Father cannot be the same Person as Jesus Christ!

That is the flesh speaking. Jesus is both man and God. God with us.
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[ByGraceThroughFaith]

That is the flesh speaking. Jesus is both man and God. God with us.
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either you just like to argue nonsense, or are indeed spiritually blind to Bible Truth!

 

[Cooper]

either you just like to argue nonsense, or are indeed spiritually blind to Bible Truth!

As Gleason Archer explains, God had to become one of us in order to redeem us from the guilt and penalty of our sin. And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth’ ‘(John 1:14).

God as God could not forgive us for our sins unless our sins were fully paid for; otherwise He would have been a condoner and protector of the violation of His own holy law. It was only as a man that God in Christ could furnish satisfaction sufficient to atone for the sins of mankind; for only a man, a true human being, could properly represent the human race.

But at the same time our Redeemer had to be God, for only God could furnish a sacrifice of infinite value, to compensate for the penalty of eternal hell that our sin demands, according to the righteous claims of divine justice. Only God could have devised a way of salvation that made it possible for Him to remain Just and at the same time become the Justifier of the ungodly and instead of sending them to the everlasting perdition they deserved it was the perfect Man who was also infinite God that furnished an effectual sacrifice for all believers of every age.
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[kcnalp]

Isaiah 48:12-17 (NKJV)
12 "Listen to Me, O Jacob, And Israel, My called: I am He, I am the First, I am also the Last. 13 Indeed My hand has laid the foundation of the earth, And My right hand has stretched out the heavens; ... 16 "Come near to Me, hear this: I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; From the time that it was, I was there. And now the Lord GOD and His Spirit Have sent Me." 17 Thus says the LORD, your Redeemer, The Holy One of Israel: "I am the LORD your God, ...

Jesus is God!

 

[Amazed@grace]

Why not? If you had a son, he is a distinct person from you, and also a human being by nature, like you are. Likewise with Jesus Christ, He is a distinct Person to the Father and Holy Spirit, but like Them, essentially God.

Jesus was not a demi-god.

Jesus was God, every fiber of his human anatomy was of God. Jesus was God, appearing as man.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Jesus was not a demi-god.

Jesus was God, every fiber of his human anatomy was of God. Jesus was God, appearing as man.

This is heresy

 

[Cooper]

This is heresy

This is not heresy, it is true. Jesus is God on Earth.
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[Amazed@grace]

This is heresy

Thank you

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

This is not heresy, it is true. Jesus is God on Earth.
.

"every fiber of his human anatomy was of God". IMPOSSIBLE, as Jesus' human nature is directly from Mary's

 

[Cooper]

"every fiber of his human anatomy was of God". IMPOSSIBLE, as Jesus' human nature is directly from Mary's

Jesus is called "the Mighty God, the Everlasting Father" and "Immanuel" (meaning "God with us").
Isaiah 9:6; Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew 1:22–23

Elsewhere Jesus is called "The Lord (Jehovah) our Righteousness," "God" and "Son of God."
Jeremiah 23:6; Isaiah 40:3; Hebrews 1:8; 1 Timothy 3:16; John 10:36.

The Bible ascribes the characteristics of deity to Jesus Christ. He is described as eternal, omnipresent, omniscient, omnipotent and immutable.
Isaiah 9:6; Micah 5:2; John 1:1–2; 8:58; 17:5; 24; Colossians 1:15, 17; 1 John 1:1; Revelation 1:8); omnipresent (Matthew 18:20; 28:20; John 3:13); omniscient (John 2:24, 25; 16:30; 21:17; Revelation 2:23); omnipotent (Isaiah 9:6; Philippians 3:21; Revelation 1:8; cf. John 5:17; Hebrews 1:3; Matthew 28:18) and immutable (Hebrews 1:10–12; 13:8)

Jesus Christ is equal with God the Father. He is worshiped as God.
John 20:28; Acts 7:59; Hebrews 1:6; cf. Exodus 34:14 and Matthew 4:10

The Deity of Jesus | Moody Bible Institute
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[kcnalp]

This is heresy

JW?

 

[kcnalp]

Jesus was not a demi-god.

Jesus was God, every fiber of his human anatomy was of God. Jesus was God, appearing as man.

Amen!
John 1 The Word was God.
The Word became flesh and dwelt among us.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Jesus is called "the Mighty God, the Everlasting Father" and "Immanuel" (meaning "God with us").
Isaiah 9:6; Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew 1:22–23

Elsewhere Jesus is called "The Lord (Jehovah) our Righteousness," "God" and "Son of God."
Jeremiah 23:6; Isaiah 40:3; Hebrews 1:8; 1 Timothy 3:16; John 10:36.

The Bible ascribes the characteristics of deity to Jesus Christ. He is described as eternal, omnipresent, omniscient, omnipotent and immutable.
Isaiah 9:6; Micah 5:2; John 1:1–2; 8:58; 17:5; 24; Colossians 1:15, 17; 1 John 1:1; Revelation 1:8); omnipresent (Matthew 18:20; 28:20; John 3:13); omniscient (John 2:24, 25; 16:30; 21:17; Revelation 2:23); omnipotent (Isaiah 9:6; Philippians 3:21; Revelation 1:8; cf. John 5:17; Hebrews 1:3; Matthew 28:18) and immutable (Hebrews 1:10–12; 13:8)

Jesus Christ is equal with God the Father. He is worshiped as God.
John 20:28; Acts 7:59; Hebrews 1:6; cf. Exodus 34:14 and Matthew 4:10

The Deity of Jesus | Moody Bible Institute
.

you are still not getting it! Jesus Christ IS Almighty God. However, when He was conceived in the womb of the virgin Mary, He actually took His human nature from here. This is clear in Matthew 1:16 and Luke 1:35, as in the KJV. Thereafter Jesus was the God-Man, 100% fully God and 100% fully Man, except for any sin in His human nature.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

JW?

I was referring to Jesus's human nature as being directly from God. You should learn to read before your silly post!

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Amen!
John 1 The Word was God.
The Word became flesh and dwelt among us.

If you agree with this, "every fiber of his human anatomy was of God", then you also are in grave HERESY!

 

[Cooper]

you are still not getting it! Jesus Christ IS Almighty God. However, when He was conceived in the womb of the virgin Mary, He actually took His human nature from here. This is clear in Matthew 1:16 and Luke 1:35, as in the KJV. Thereafter Jesus was the God-Man, 100% fully God and 100% fully Man, except for any sin in His human nature.

How can Jesus be, "100% fully Man, except for any sin in His human nature?"

You are not making sense.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

How can Jesus be, "100% fully Man, except for any sin in His human nature?"

You are not making sense.

Read luke 1.35 in the King James Bible