You used the word "demonstrably." How has this doctrine been "demonstrated"?
Hello PW,
What I was saying, is that it is demonstrable that the Church has believed and taught this from the very beginning.
For example Ignatius, Bishop of the Church in Antioch writes:
"They abstain
from eucharist (thanksgiving) and prayer, because they
allow not that the eucharist is the flesh of our
Saviour Jesus Christ, which flesh suffered for our
sins, and which the Father of His goodness raised up."
(
St. Ignatius of Antioch to the Smyrnaeans (Lightfoot translation) )
Now one could rightly say that this also demonstrates there were those who disbelived, what of them?
Where are their communities today? Lost, gone, forgotten,
perished just as Ignatius said they would be:
" They therefore that gainsay the good gift of God
perish by their questionings. But it were expedient
for them to have love, that they may also rise again."
Why would it make any difference how long something has been taught?
Because the Truth does not change. What was True for our brother s and sisters in 100 AD..200AD...500 AD... 1000 AD... Must still be True today.
Peace!