John 8:24, 28, 58 - Jesus Christ IS YHWH

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michaelvpardo

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I use the best translation of our time:

The KING JAMES BIBLE!
The KJV is the first Bible that I read, back while enrolled in "catechism " and I had a pocket version that I used at work on those nights waiting for traffic to die down so we could repair cameras in the tunnels below the Hudson, but it's certainly not the most accurate or the easiest read. The New King James Version is a huge improvement in modern language with the same poetic flow, but neither version is as accurate as the NASB. The differences between the KJV and literal translations are significant, but in any event misinterpretation remains common.
 
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Michiah-Imla

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The New King James Version is a huge improvement in modern language with the same poetic flow, but neither version is as accurate as the NASB.

Both of these versions (like all post 1611 versions) are corrupted by modernist thinking and faulty manuscripts.
 

Michiah-Imla

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Yup, of course they are dear.

That’s right dear.

KING JAMES BIBLE
“For we are not as many, which corrupt the word of God” (2 Corinthians 2:17)

ENGLISH STANDARD VERSION
“For we are not, like so many, peddlers of God's word” (2 Corinthians 2:17)

Says the corrupt ESV :jest:
 

michaelvpardo

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16 These are the names of the men which Moses sent to spy out the land. And Moses called Oshea the son of Nun Jehoshua. Numbers 13:16

3 The Lord thy God, he will go over before thee, and he will destroy these nations from before thee, and thou shalt possess them: and Joshua, he shall go over before thee, as the Lord hath said. Deuteronomy 31:3


These 2 verses are pulled out of the KJV. They both refer to the same person, Oshea (or Hoshea) the Son of Nun.

However Numbers 13:16 translates Moses' "nickname " for Oshea as Jehoshua while elsewhere Joshua. This is one example of intentional error introduced by the translators, because they couldn't accept or didn't understand the significance of Moses' choice of a nickname for Oshea. The Bible doesn't give us random facts regarding the given name of Jesus Christ, but passages which shed light on His person. The translators clearly didn't like the idea that Jesus is the incarnation of Yah havah, and tried to obscure the fact.
2000 years after His incarnation, scholars are still arguing over the correct translation of Joshua the high priest given a king's crown and representing "the name of the branch" (from the book of Zechariah), despite the New Testament Epistles which identify Jesus (Joshua) as our high priest and king.
Jesus said plainly that the scriptures testified of Him, (not of some other God.) Jesus' works (the miraculous signs) are the works the old testament writings attributed to God. Thats why He told His accusers to believe the works if not His testimony. Their problem, like many here, is that they simply refused to believe what scripture plainly says, and Jesus rebuked His own disciples for being slow to believe all the scriptures' testimony about Him.
 

michaelvpardo

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You lost your train of thought…

The subject is Christ.

:hmhehm
Yes, identified in scripture as the Holy one of Israel, which is also another self identification, as scripture says God alone is Holy. There isn't just one verse that identifies Jesus as God, the entire Bible equates Jesus with God.
Let's look at one simple example.

18 No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. John 1:18 KJV

can we agree that this passage says that no man has seen God at any time?

11 And the Lord spake unto Moses face to face, as a man speaketh unto his friend. And he turned again into the camp: but his servant Joshua, the son of Nun, a young man, departed not out of the tabernacle. Exodus 33:11 KJV
(Note: Oshea, whom Moses calls Joshua, doesn't leave the tabernacle of meeting. He's always present when Moses speaks face to face with God.)
In this verse, according to Strong's Concordance, "Lord" is the translation of Strong's #3068, (Jehovah)
So, did John get it wrong, did Moses lie, did God make a mistake, or is Jesus the incarnation of Yah havah, the living and only God?

I'd like to thank you for forcing me to use my old King James Version of scripture to argue the point. I always loved its poetical form, but hadn't realized just how much translational discontinuity exists in it until examining some of the related passages. The only inspiration in the translation is that of the imagination of rebellious souls.
 
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Michiah-Imla

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There isn't just one verse that identifies Jesus as God

the entire Bible equates Jesus with God.

Only in the imagination of rebellious souls…


Ok.

can we agree that this passage says that no man has seen God at any time?

Yes.

11 And the Lord spake unto Moses face to face, as a man speaketh unto his friend

Ok.

did John get it wrong, did Moses lie

John got it right.

And Moses told the truth.

“For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.” (1 Corinthians 13:12)

translational discontinuity

Translational EXCELLENCY!

The only inspiration in the translation is that of the imagination of rebellious souls.

:jest:
 

michaelvpardo

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Only in the imagination of rebellious souls…



Ok.



Yes.



Ok.



John got it right.

And Moses told the truth.

“For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.” (1 Corinthians 13:12)



Translational EXCELLENCY!



:jest:
So, you're admitting that Jesus is Yah havah? Or you're standing on ignorance and justifying it with a verse out of context that is entirely irrelevant to "the mind of Christ?"
 

RLT63

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Yes, identified in scripture as the Holy one of Israel, which is also another self identification, as scripture says God alone is Holy. There isn't just one verse that identifies Jesus as God, the entire Bible equates Jesus with God.
Let's look at one simple example.

18 No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. John 1:18 KJV

can we agree that this passage says that no man has seen God at any time?

11 And the Lord spake unto Moses face to face, as a man speaketh unto his friend. And he turned again into the camp: but his servant Joshua, the son of Nun, a young man, departed not out of the tabernacle. Exodus 33:11 KJV
(Note: Oshea, whom Moses calls Joshua, doesn't leave tbe tabernacle of meeting. He's always present when Moses speaks face to face with God.)
In this verse, according to Strong's Concordance, "Lord" is the translation of Strong's #3068, (Jehovah)
So, did John get it wrong, did Moses lie, did God make a mistake, or is Jesus the incarnation of Yah havah, the living and only God?

I'd like to thank you for forcing me to use my old King James Version of scripture to argue the point. I always loved its poetical form, but hadn't realized just how much translational discontinuity exists in it until examining some of the related passages. The only inspiration in the translation is that of the imagination of rebellious souls.
I always wondered about that because a few verses later God says "No man can see my face and live."
Exo 33:20

And he said, Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me, and live.
Exo 33:21

And the LORD said, Behold, there is a place by me, and thou shalt stand upon a rock:
Exo 33:22

And it shall come to pass, while my glory passeth by, that I will put thee in a clift of the rock, and will cover thee with my hand while I pass by:
Exo 33:23

And I will take away mine hand, and thou shalt see my back parts: but my face shall not be seen.
 
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michaelvpardo

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I always wondered about that because a few verses later God says "No man can see my face and live."
Exo 33:20

And he said, Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me, and live.
Exo 33:21

And the LORD said, Behold, there is a place by me, and thou shalt stand upon a rock:
Exo 33:22

And it shall come to pass, while my glory passeth by, that I will put thee in a clift of the rock, and will cover thee with my hand while I pass by:
Exo 33:23

And I will take away mine hand, and thou shalt see my back parts: but my face shall not be seen.
Yes, but Moses asked to see His glory and Jesus is identified as the radiance of His glory. Scripture doesn't tell us the reason for this prohibition, but I suspect it has something to do with the commandment prohibiting images. It's interesting that though many people witnessed Jesus the Christ firsthand, we have no images of Him from any eyewitness. Every picture of the Christ ever produced by an artist is a work of how the artist imagined He looked.
 
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Blue Dragonfly's

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Yes, but Moses asked to see His glory and Jesus is identified as the radiance of His glory. Scripture doesn't tell us the reason for this prohibition, but I suspect it has something to do with the commandment prohibiting images. It's interesting that though many people witnessed Jesus the Christ firsthand, we have no images of Him from any eyewitness. Every picture of the Christ ever produced by an artist is a work of how the artist imagined He looked.
Exodus 33
And he said, “I will make all my goodness pass before you and will proclaim before you my name ‘The LORD.’ And I will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and will show mercy on whom I will show mercy. But,” he said, “you cannot see my face, for man shall not see me and live.”


Is why God, The Word, made himself sinless unblemished Jesus.
 
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