By ignoring some verses in 1 Corinthians 14, you are saying that using the gift of tongues should be limited to public church meetings and accompanied by interpretation so that it can be edifying to the listeners. What you are talking about is the ministry gift of tongues that only believers selected by the Holy Spirit are able to use.
Chapter 14 is only about tongues' use in the assembly for why the gift of prophesy should be the gift to seek after, because tongues is not a stand alone gift.
But Paul also advocates praying in tongues in private. He says that when someone prays in tongues they are 'giving thanks well'. Perhaps you missed seeing that verse. So if you are saying that speaking in tongues is false and Paul is saying that it is giving thanks well, then who is correct, you or Paul?
Paul was giving an example why tongues is to be interpreted in the assembly in context of why prophesy is better than tongues in chapter 14.
1 Corinthians 14:12
Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church.13 Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret.14 For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful.15 What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also
.16 Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest? 17 For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified.
When Paul says that he speaks in tongues more than them all, where does he do that? It seems illogical that he would be doing that in church meetings. Anyone with common sense would know that he spent much of his private prayer time praying in tongues to the only person who can understand what he is saying - God.
Paul cannot speak for himself if it was done in private. Paul follows this rule for witnessesing.
2 Corinthians 13:1This is the third time I am coming to you. In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established.
That means what he has told them is because he can for he did it in their presence as also that tongue was interpreted by another so he could understand it for that tongue to be fruitful to himself as the tongue speaker..
In verse 2, Paul says that a person speaking in tongues is speaking to God. Where would one do that? No in public because no one would be able to understand him. No. He would be speaking to God in private prayer - where else? Where do you do all your praying - in public or in private? When you pray in public are you talking to God or are you merely lecturing to the others in the form of prayer (which many do who want to preach but are not given the opportunity, so they "preach" in the form of public prayer).
If you apply verse 2 to mean He is speaking TO God, then you have to apply verse 28 as someone speaking to himself and to God in that way too. Does that make him look "mad" in verse 28 for speaking to himself? Of course, it does. If the whole assembly spoke like that, & be deemed mad by someone coming into the assembly, how can a lone person escape that assessment?
So it is quite clear to me that people who speak loudly in tongues in public meetings, without interpretation, are violating Paul's direct instructions about it, and therefore are in the flesh and not the Spirit. A person cannot be in the Spirit if he is disobeying Scripture. But if a person speaks out in tongues expecting interpretation, then he is consistent with Scripture and is therefore in the Spirit.
Since the interpretation is to come from another and not from the same person speaking in tongues, it doesn't matter if that tongue was manifested by the Holy Spirit to lead that person to speak because the Holy Spirit will interpret thru another. So the question remains for verse 28 in how those that speak are made silence when there is no interpretation and Paul signify8ing him as someone that speaks to himself and to God.
That is why I believe that is the way Paul spoke in those days in pointing out that when someone speaks and there is no interpretation, that is just a foreigner speaking out of turn for why he is made silence as he is speaking unto himself & unto God meaning he knows what he is saying as God does too; not that he is actually speaking to himself and to God that way.
And so that is how I apply verse 2 to mean that he is not speaking TO God since there are no mysteries to Him but that the person does not understand what is being said but God does in having that gift of tongue for why prophesy is better than tongue because tongue is a stand alone gift.
And when he prays in tongues in private to God, then he is in the Spirit because he, again, is compliant with Scripture.
No, it is not when he admits he prays so that another may interpret that tongue so he may understand it and be fruitful to himself.
But a person who says that the gifts of the Spirit ceased at the death of the last Apostle, or on the completion of the Biblical canon, is in the flesh and not the Spirit because there are no Scriptures to support his assertion.
The point of tongues with interpretation is to our edification and so believers should seek that gift of prophesy for our edification. If you have the written word in the KJV at your church, then there will be no edification by prophesy that cannot be found in scripture. In that sense, it is complete.
When someone prophesy something running against scripture or speak in tongues and supposedly interpret but yet running against scripture, then it is reproved by scripture and whatever that spirit is doing, be it a deception of man or a lying spirit, it needs to be exposed and rebuked or else that person will just continue spreading lies in leading others astray in the assembly.
And the assembly should pray normally for guidance in how to abide in His words and not in the sensationalism of what they think tongues are for. How can anyone not be exalted in the eyes of others for having a special tongue not for the edification of others in the assembly?