If one were to closely examine the Greek word parousia, it can be established as meaning "presence". For example, at Philippians 2:12, the apostle Paul contrasts the Greek word parousia with the Greek word apousia. There he says: "Consequently, my beloved ones, in the way that you have always obeyed, not during my presence (parousia) only, but now much more readily during my absence (apousia)."Retrobyter said:Shalom, Guestman.
I'm not going to let you get by with this one. You should AVOID using any form of Young's Literal Translation! The Greek word "parousia" does NOT mean "presence"; it means an "arrival." It's not just a "being along side"; it means "a becoming along side," speaking of a PHYSICAL RETURN, not just an "invisible presence!" The same word, "parousia," was used for the physical arrival of Stephanas, Fortunatus, and Achaius in 1 Corinthians 16:17 and for Titus in 2 Corinthians 7:6-7. It is a misrepresentation of Scripture to say it refers to a "presence," let alone an "invisible presence!"
Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament says of parousia: "1. presence" and notes this at 1 Corinthians 15:23, whereby Paul says: "But each one in his own rank: Christ the firstfruits, afterward those who belong to the Christ during his presence (Greek parousia)" as well at 2 Corinthians 10:10, in which Paul says: "For they say: "His letters are weighty and forceful, but his presence (Greek parousia) is weak and his speech contemptible."
That Jesus "presence" cannot be visible is seen in what the apostle Paul wrote to the Hebrews, after speaking of Jesus offering his life blood to God: "Otherwise, he would have to suffer often from the founding of the world. But now he has manifested himself once for all time at the conclusion of the system of things to put sin away through the sacrifice of himself."(Heb 9:26)
If Jesus were to reappear visibly in the flesh after having presented his life blood to Jehovah God (Heb 9:24), he would be reneging on his ransom. That it something that will not be done, for this would make null and void his ransom that he gave in 33 C.E. and invalidate God's word.
Thus, when four of Jesus apostles asked him: "What is the sign of your presence (Greek parousia) and of the conclusion of the system of things" (Matt 24:3), Jesus paralled it to the "days of Noah" (Matt 24:37-39) that covered some 120 years (Gen 6:3) and responded by telling them that "nation will rise against nation and kingdom against kingdom, and there will be food shortages and earthquakes in one place after another. All these things are a beginning of pangs of distress."(Matt 24:7, 8)
Hence, Jesus "presence" would be an extended period of time whereby many events or features of "sign of Jesus presence" would be apparent to ones whom Jesus likens to "eagles" or spiritually keen ones.(Matt 24:27, 28) The question can rightly be asked: If Jesus presence is visible, then why did Jesus apostles ask for a "sign" to determine when this would be happening ?
Just as Noah warned his "generation" or contemporaries of the impending cataclysm (Gen 6:9; 2 Pet 2:5), so likewise Jesus said that during his "presence" that is invisible, there would be accomplished a global preaching and teaching work at Matthew 24:14. He directs this earth wide work from heaven, using his angels.(Rev 14:6)
Hence, when the "great tribulation" begins, this work will have been completed to God's satisfaction, in which God says: "And I will rock the nations, and the desirable things of all the nations must come in, and I will fill this house with glory,' Jehovah of armies has said."(Hag 2:7)
These are the ones who are seen as the "great crowd" that "come out of the great tribulation, and they have washed their robes and made them white in the blood of the Lamb."(Rev 7:14)