The Trinity definition

[justbyfaith]

Christ and his Father are two different spirits

error. There is one Spirit (Ephesians 4:4, John 4:24).

Jesus isn’t the Father.

He is (Isaiah 9:6) and I can also prove it otherwise:

There is one Lord in holy scripture (Mark 12:29 (kjv), Ephesians 4:5); and that Lord is the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). No one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3 (kjv)). And Jesus is the one Lord (1 Corinthians 8:6).

If Jesus is not the Father, that is two Lords: 1) the Father, and 2) Jesus.

However, the holy scriptures deny such a concept (Mark 12:29 (kjv), 1 Corinthians 8:6, Ephesians 4:5).

So in light of these things, how is Jesus not the Father; seeing there is only one Lord, even the Father; and no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost? I suppose that you can deny that Jesus is the Lord of heaven and earth (the Father); but then you have the problem of not being born again; because the Bible teaches us that you don't have the Spirit of Christ if you deny that Jesus is the Lord.

 

[Mattathias]

lol, but did you not say, and I quote, "All good gifts come down from heaven and a person who doesn’t do his own will but the will of the person who sent him isn’t the person who sent him."

Yes, that’s what I said.

ok, lets see if what you said is true, scripture, Isaiah 48:16 "Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me."

now this person who was sent, is he a human man? yes or no

Yes.

 

[Mattathias]

error. There is one Spirit (Ephesians 4:4, John 4:24).

He is (Isaiah 9:6) and I can also prove it otherwise:

There is one Lord in holy scripture (Mark 12:29 (kjv), Ephesians 4:5); and that Lord is the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). No one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3 (kjv)). And Jesus is the one Lord (1 Corinthians 8:6).

If Jesus is not the Father, that is two Lords: 1) the Father, and 2) Jesus.

However, the holy scriptures deny such a concept (Mark 12:29 (kjv), 1 Corinthians 8:6, Ephesians 4:5).

So in light of these things, how is Jesus not the Father; seeing there is only one Lord, even the Father; and no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost? I suppose that you can deny that Jesus is the Lord of heaven and earth (the Father); but then you have the problem of not being born again; because the Bible teaches us that you don't have the Spirit of Christ if you deny that Jesus is the Lord.

Jesus is the lord Messiah. His God and Father is the Lord God.

 

[justbyfaith]

Jesus is the lord Messiah. His God and Father is the Lord God.

Nope, you didn't say it right. You uncapitalized "Lord".

This disqualifies you from having the Holy Ghost until He begins to indwell you so that you will be able to confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus.

 

[Mattathias]

Nope, you didn't say it right. You uncapitalized "Lord".

See Psalm 110:1. “Yahweh said to my lord ...”.

The Hebrew word translated “lord” is adoni.

Psalms 110 / Hebrew - English Bible / Mechon-Mamre

 

[101G]

Yes, that’s what I said.



Yes.

well, lets see, "the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me.". scripture, Revelation 1:1 "The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:"

someone sent HIS angel to John ... correct, lets see who was it.... the angel who was sent said this to John as to who sent him, listen, Revelation 22:6 "And he said unto me, These sayings are faithful and true: and the Lord God of the holy prophets sent his angel to shew unto his servants the things which must shortly be done."
OH, so it was the Lord God of the .... holy Prophets, the same one Lord God of , Isaiah 48:16 well the Lord God of the holy prophets would indicate the OT God. but you have a bigger problen. because JESUS the Son was sent... right... according to the scriptures, right, but guess who is the Lord God that sent his angel.... read Revelation 22:16

so now, going back to Isaiah 48:16 lets put Jesus the Son in the place of Lord God, "Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, (JESUS), and his Spirit, hath sent me."

JESUS and his Spirit sent him. and that him is the EQUAL Spirit at Phil 2:6.... Uh O.... YIKES!.

so you explination is reprove. we suggest you re-read this post for clarity, AND FOLLOW THE SCRIPTURES GIVEN.

other words try again.

PICJAG
101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"

 

[justbyfaith]

See Psalm 110:1. “Yahweh said to my lord ...”.

The Hebrew word translated “lord” is adoni.

Psalms 110 / Hebrew - English Bible / Mechon-Mamre

Nope. It says, the LORD said to my Lord...

 

[justbyfaith]

You need to consider that the capital "L" in Lord is distinguished in 1 Corinthians 8:5-6.

In that passage, there are gods many and lords many; but there is only one Lord Jesus Christ.

If capitalization doesn't mean anything then you have a contradiction:

1) Lords many; and one Lord Jesus Christ; or,

2) lords many; and one lord Jesus Christ.

Question: How many Lords/lords are there?

Answer:

There are many lords; but there is only one Lord (Jesus Christ).

 

[Mattathias]

well, lets see, "the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me.". scripture, Revelation 1:1 "The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:"

someone sent HIS angel to John ... correct, lets see who was it.... the angel who was sent said this to John as to who sent him, listen, Revelation 22:6 "And he said unto me, These sayings are faithful and true: and the Lord God of the holy prophets sent his angel to shew unto his servants the things which must shortly be done."
OH, so it was the Lord God of the .... holy Prophets, the same one Lord God of , Isaiah 48:16 well the Lord God of the holy prophets would indicate the OT God. but you have a bigger problen. because JESUS the Son was sent... right... according to the scriptures, right, but guess who is the Lord God that sent his angel.... read Revelation 22:16

so now, going back to Isaiah 48:16 lets put Jesus the Son in the place of Lord God, "Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, (JESUS), and his Spirit, hath sent me."

JESUS and his Spirit sent him. and that him is the EQUAL Spirit at Phil 2:6.... Uh O.... YIKES!.

so you explination is reprove. we suggest you re-read this post for clarity, AND FOLLOW THE SCRIPTURES GIVEN.

other words try again.

PICJAG


101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"

Thanks. The Lord God doesn’t send himself.

 

[Mattathias]

Nope. It says, the LORD said to my Lord...

“LORD” is the standard English convention for rendering the personal name of God.

Adoni (“lord”) occurs 195 times in the Old Testament. It is a title assigned to human persons, and sometimes angels, but never to God.

 

[justbyfaith]

“LORD” is the standard English convention for rendering the personal name of God.

Adoni (“lord”) occurs 195 times in the Old Testament. It is a title assigned to human persons, and sometimes angels, but never to God.

The Greek equivalent of Adonai is used for the Father in Matthew 11:25 and Luke 10:21.

Therefore the LORD, who is the Father, can also be identified as the Lord. The term LORD (Lord) can indeed be apprehended phonetically because of this.

 

[Mattathias]

You need to consider that the capital "L" in Lord is distinguished in 1 Corinthians 8:5-6.

In that passage, there are gods many and lords many; but there is only one Lord Jesus Christ.

Paul, a Jewish unitary monotheist, makes a distinction in persons between the one God (the Father) and the one Lord (the Son). You’re combining two persons into a single person.

 

[101G]

Thanks. The Lord God doesn’t send himself.

he came see Isaiah 35:4

Adoni occurs 195 times in the Old Testament. It is a title assigned to human persons

Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."


PICJAG
101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"

 

[Mattathias]

The Greek equivalent of Adonai is used for the Father in Matthew 11:25 and Luke 10:21.

Therefore the LORD, who is the Father, can also be identified as the Lord. The term LORD (Lord) can indeed be apprehended phonetically because of this.

Jesus isn’t talking to himself. And Adonai is not adoni.

 

[justbyfaith]

Thanks. The Lord God doesn’t send himself.

I used to go and help my adopted mother, Eunice, with some heavy lifitng when she needed it most. I would often show up at the most inopportune times and at those times she would need me to help her with her stuff. She always said that the Lord had sent me.

One time, when I was about to move, I needed her help with something and was not there specifically to help her. Her sister said over the phone, "He sent himself that time."

The analogy breaks down in that we know that the Lord was completely unselfish in sending Himself to be the propitiation for our sins.

But it stands as a real-life example of someone sending themselves to do something.

 

[justbyfaith]

Jesus isn’t talking to himself.

post #5 (True Trinity.).

 

[justbyfaith]

And Adonai is not adoni.

What's the difference?

 

[101G]

Jesus isn’t talking to himself. And Adonai is not adoni.

he is speaking to himself as Father, and in flesh as Son, the Diversity. see Psalms 110:5 "The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath."

now who is on his "RIGHT?".

H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113

PICJAG
101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"

 

[Mattathias]

he came see Isaiah 35:4

Certainly.

Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."

Now see the English translations which recognize that the Hebrew word is adoni and render it properly (“lord”) in English.

The unidentified translation which you quoted (there are many which render the verse this way) is misrepresenting the Hebrew word. The capital “L” signals to readers that the Hebrew word is Adonai. I posted an interlinear demonstrating that it’s not.

 

[justbyfaith]

Paul, a Jewish unitary monotheist, makes a distinction in persons between the one God (the Father) and the one Lord (the Son). You’re combining two persons into a single person.

The Greek word for "and" is "kai" and can be translated "even".

There is one Lord in holy scripture (Mark 12:29 (kjv), Ephesians 4:5). The Bible says that the Father is the Lord of heaven and earth (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). Yet no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Spirit of truth (1 Corinthians 12:3 (kjv). And Jesus is the one Lord (1 Corinthians 8:6).

How do you explain this?

How is Jesus not the Father in this scenario?