The Wrath of God - How is it love?

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ProDeo

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You may not want to believe that God poured out His wrath on His Son, but that is exactly what happened, because that’s what our sin demanded. Isaiah 53:10 says, “Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him, he hath put him to grief,” and Isaiah 53:6 declares, “The Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.” This wasn’t just human violence, it was divine judgment. Jesus wasn’t merely a victim of man’s cruelty, He was the sin-bearing substitute under the judgment of God. 2 Corinthians 5:21 says, “He hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin, that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.” Galatians 3:13 says, “Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us.” Whose curse? God’s. The wrath that we deserved was poured out on Jesus so that we could be forgiven. Romans 3:25 says Jesus was set forth to be “a propitiation through faith in his blood,” which means a wrath-satisfying sacrifice.

The word wrath is not in Romans 3:25

If God did not pour out His righteous anger on sin at the cross, then there is no justice and no Gospel.

Assumption of yours.

Jesus said in John 18:11, “The cup which my Father hath given me, shall I not drink it?”

No wrath in John 18:11, once again you adding to Scripture.

Jesus knew what the Father wanted, dying a horrible death on a cross, the cup to drink. Don't add things that aren't there.

That “cup” was the cup of God's wrath (Psalm 75:8, Revelation 14:10).

Both texts have nothing to with the crucifixion.

You can reject that truth if you want, but it’s not faithful to Scripture.

In return I can say, don't add to Scripture, no wrath from God the Father on God the Son in Scripture, Jesus was made sin, bore the sins of the world, past, present, future and because of that He had to die and that was enough for the Father, the blameless Lamb slain and the Father raised Him up, death could not hold Him because Jesus was sinless.

John 1:29 The next day he [John the Baptist] saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!

The full story is not just that Jesus bled, it’s that He endured the judgment we deserve, and only by that wrath being satisfied can we be reconciled to God.

And what if you are wrong, it's a serious accusation then.
 
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bdavidc

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The word wrath is not in Romans 3:25



Assumption of yours.



No wrath in John 18:11, once again you adding to Scripture.

Jesus knew what the Father wanted, dying a horrible death on a cross, the cup to drink. Don't add things that aren't there.



Both texts have nothing to with the crucifixion.



In return I can say, don't add to Scripture, no wrath from God the Father on God the Son in Scripture, Jesus was made sin, bore the sins of the world, past, present, future and because of that He had to die and that was enough for the Father, the blameless Lamb slain and the Father raised Him up, death could not hold Him because Jesus was sinless.

John 1:29 The next day he [John the Baptist] saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!



And what if you are wrong, it's a serious accusation then.
You keep repeating the same error, and at this point, you're willfully ignoring what Scripture actually says. I am not wrong, what I’ve told you is straight out of the Bible, not my opinion. The wrath of God is not just a theological idea, it's a repeated biblical truth, and denying it is denying God’s own words. Romans 3:25 says God set forth Jesus “to be a propitiation through faith in his blood,” the Greek word for propitiation is ἱλαστήριον (hilastērion), which literally means an appeasement or satisfaction of wrath. That alone demolishes your claim. God’s wrath was poured out on sin, and Jesus bore that in our place. Isaiah 53:10 says, “Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him, he hath put him to grief.” That is not metaphor, that is God the Father crushing His own Son as the substitute for sin.

You say there’s no wrath in John 18:11, but Jesus says, “the cup which my Father hath given me, shall I not drink it?” The cup in Scripture consistently refers to wrath, read Psalm 75:8, Jeremiah 25:15, Revelation 14:10. Jesus wasn’t fearing crucifixion, He was going to drink the cup of divine judgment for sin. Galatians 3:13 says, “Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us.” That curse is the outpouring of God’s judgment. Your refusal to accept these plain Scriptures shows that you're not being honest with the text.

Stop accusing others of “adding to Scripture” when the words are right there in front of you. Hebrews 2:17 says Jesus made reconciliation for the sins of the people, the Greek word ἱλάσκεσθαι (hilaskomai) again points to wrath being turned away. God didn’t overlook sin, He judged it fully, on Christ. If you continue rejecting what is plainly written, then you are the one adding your own ideas and removing God's. You're twisting Scripture instead of reading it the way God actually meant it.