Brakelite
Well-Known Member
I would take it further. We are talking about the present, for in understanding the closeness of these events, we must concede they are taking place as we speak, and the culmination isn't far away. So Babylon as a city, was destroyed and was prophesied never to rise again. So the city appellation must also be figurative. So when we look elsewhere in scripture, what cities are used metaphorically, and what do they represent? There are only two. Jerusalem/Zion and Babylon. Most of the bible is a tale of two cities. Spiritual Jerusalem, the global faithful church, and spiritual Babylon, the apostate church which are both global entities, which reinforces the idea of both cities being figurative.And that is the proper question, for we know kings don't, and can't have literal sex with a city. So the question HAS to be, "how does a king, or anybody for that matter, commit spiritual/figurative adultery with a 'city'?" Adultery is devotion and intimacy with someone else other than who you are rightfully to be devoted and intimate with. The plain message of Revelation is that the essence of this whoredom/adultery is economic. There is certainly a 'religious' element involved with this, too, for the love of this world is so often connected with the worship of demons, whom pagans credit for giving them the things of the world.
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