What? The passage does not even hint at that. The question that the Sadduces asked was "in the resurrection whose wife of them will she be?” The implication being that everyone will be resurrected around the same time at some time in the future.Those were resurrected from the dead!
I was reading it in context. Where are you getting from the context that there are two separate resurrections, and of death not being death of the person until they are resurrected? It says "the resurrection" not "the resurrections". You're reading into the passage things that are not there.They are not physically resurrected because none shall be physically resurrected before an hour coming when the last trumpet sounds. Why do you not read the passage in context?
You're relying on a single poor translation (KJV) of the verse. Most modern translations say "those who are considered worthy to attain to that age and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage", implying that the resurrection occurs in a future age. The Mark and Matthew passages of this story have Jesus simply saying:If Christ was speaking of the physical resurrection that shall come, why would He say those who obtain "that world" do not marry, cannot die anymore, and they are equal/like the angels of God?
Mark 12:25 (WEB):
(25) For when they will rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are like angels in heaven.
Matthew 22:30 (WEB):(30) For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are like God’s angels in heaven.
There is only one resurrection to life from death. At that resurrection, in a future age, people will be given a new human body. There is a special resurrection for the Church, the "first resurrection", in which the saints are given an immortal divine spirit body. There is no preceding resurrection and living existence as a bodyless spirit for anybody.
No it's not!That is a description of a spirit being made alive after the physical body has died.
Again, you're relying on a poor KJV translation of one word, and not reading the word in context. Better translations say, for example:Luke writes "NOW that the dead are raised"! IOW NOW, through the advent of Christ, God is not the God of the dead, but of the living.
Luke 20:37 (WEB):
(37) But that the dead are raised, even Moses showed at the bush, when he called the Lord ‘The God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob.’
The Greek word is "de", which Strong's Greek Lexicon says means "but, and, etc.: - also, and, but, moreover, now [often unexpressed in English]". So it should be either unexpressed and just say "That the dead are raised", or it should be translated as "But that the dead are raised".
The equivalent Mark and Matthew passages say:
Mark 12:26 (KJV):
(26) And as touching the dead, that they rise: have ye not read in the book of Moses, how in the bush God spake unto him, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob?
Mark 12:26 (WEB):(26) But about the dead, that they are raised; haven’t you read in the book of Moses, about the Bush, how God spoke to him, saying, ‘I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’?
Matthew 22:31 KJV):
(31) But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying,
Matthew 22:31 (WEB):(31) But concerning the resurrection of the dead, haven’t you read that which was spoken to you by God, saying,
Even if you insist (unreasonably!) that it must be "Now that the dead are raised", it still doesn't mean "That the dead are raised now"!
The context is that the Sadduces did not believe there would be a resurrection of the dead, and they quoted the law given by Moses concening men dying having not had any children, that the man's brother should marry his wife. So as evidence that there will be a resurrection of the dead, Jesus quotes from the writings of Moses back to them.
Where do you get such nonsense?!Our spirit alive ascends to heaven if before death we have been born again of His Spirit.
John 3:13 (KJV):
(13) And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Where in the context does it mention anything about people dying in unbelief? It only mentions princes. Psalms 146:1-4 (WEB):Again Ps 146 in context is speaking of those who die in unbelief.
(1) Praise Yah! Praise Yahweh, my soul.
(2) While I live, I will praise Yahweh. I will sing praises to my God as long as I exist.
(3) Don’t put your trust in princes, each a son of man in whom there is no help.
(4) His spirit departs, and he returns to the earth. In that very day, his thoughts perish.
I'm tired of spending so much time pointing out so many errors in your understanding of the Scriptures. I'm going to stop responding to your posts on this subject now. It's too time-consuming.
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