That doesn't fit with what scripture tells us.
"also for the sins of the whole world - The phrase "the sins of" is not in the original, but is not improperly supplied, for the connection demands it. This is one of the expressions occurring in the New Testament which demonstrate that the atonement was made for all people, and which cannot be reconciled with any other opinion. If he had died only for a part of the race, this language could not have been used. The phrase, "the whole world," is one which naturally embraces all people; is such as would be used if it be supposed that the apostle meant to teach that Christ died for all people; and is such as cannot be explained on any other supposition. If he died only for the elect, it is not true that he is the "propitiation for the sins of the whole world" in any proper sense, nor would it be possible then to assign a sense in which it could be true."
(Barnes notes)
It fits scriptures but not your view.
You must learn to understand scriptures in the light of clear truths in scriptures, such as scriptures that relates to our discussion here. We have scriptures that clearly tells us that Jesus Christ gives His life for His sheep, that He was sent to save His people, that He purchased the church with His own blood. Then we have scriptures say that He is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world, that He gave up His life as a ransom for all. How do you take all these scriptures? Needless to say, we take such scriptures as not to contradict each other. And doing so, leads me to take the view that the "all" and the "whole world" could not refer to each and every man who had ever lived and will yet come to existence.
You said "
If he died only for the elect,...." It is not "
if he died only for the elect", for it is clear that not all men are saved, and that Jesus Christ clearly refers to His church, His people, His sheep, for whom He gave His life to save them.
You said "
If he died only for the elect, it is not true that he is the "propitiation for the sins of the whole world" in any proper sense, nor would it be possible then to assign a sense in which it could be true."" That's your take on that. But taking "whole world" to refer to to each and very man that was, is, and will be, would render it contradicting scriptures. Jesus Christ dying for His people, His sheep, His church, does not make false the scriptures in
1 John 2:2. Scriptures must always be understood, first, in their immediate context and in the larger context of the rest of scriptures.
Tong
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