You do understand that was an altered version correct? Matter of fact it was done deliberately as the same translators rendered it a god at Acts 28:6. Why do you suppose they did that K?
Who is Jesus Christ?
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You do understand that was an altered version correct? Matter of fact it was done deliberately as the same translators rendered it a god at Acts 28:6. Why do you suppose they did that K?
Let me get this straight, did you not with this post as well as previous ones state that God is going to torture individuals for an eternity? Isn't that what you are trying to prove by the emboldened passages? You would not consider someone who did that to be evil? I would.
But take solace sir, that is not what is going to happen to people, as I stated from the beginning, the penalty for sin is death. The lake of fire represents the second death, you either receive everlasting life or get cast into the lake of fire (figuratively) which means the second, or permanent eternal death.
Wrangler
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It's only due to dualism that the matter is not settled there. Mutual exclusivity does not apply to trinitarians. A person can be in and out at the same time.
While admitting there is one God, man is not God and Person A is man, they also conclude Person A is 'also God.' It is inherently contradictory. The fact that the trinity is not in the Bible is irrelevant.
And so you cancel the word of God in order to hand down your own tradition. And this is only one example among many others.”
Mark 7:13 (NLT)
Jesus as well as all spirit beings are superior to humans sir, to become a human would result in a reduction of stature. Jehovah also chose to put him in a lowly household. He had a great impressive reputation however, notice these accounts:
(Matthew 8:27) . . .men were amazed and said: “What sort of person is this? Even the winds and the sea obey him.”
(Matthew 9:33) . . .the crowds were amazed and said: “Never has anything like this been seen in Israel.”
(Matthew 22:22) . . .When they heard that, they were amazed, and they left him and went away.
(Mark 5:20) 20 This man went away and started to proclaim in the De·capʹo·lis all the things Jesus had done for him, and all the people were amazed.
Perhaps the most notorious Marks is this:
(Luke 2:42-47) . . .when he became twelve years old, . . . after three days they found him in the temple, sitting in the midst of the teachers and listening to them and questioning them. 47 But all those listening to him were in constant amazement at his understanding and his answers.
Even at the young age of 12, teachers in the temple was amazed by him.
The spirit of the dove was Jesus' anointing sir, all of those of the little flock will undergo the same baptism, through holy spirit, and in all of their cases the water baptism as well, but they are anointed through the holy spirit
(Acts 1:5) . . .John, indeed, baptized with water, but you will be baptized with holy spirit . . .
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
What verse is that; the Shema? (BTW, I recently read the word 'Jehovah' is a medieval invention, not a transliteration or translation of Scripture). In any event, one is no kind of 3; 3 is no kind of one. I remind trinitarians that the Shema would have been an excellent time for God to announce his trinitarian nature. Odd that the trinity is so important that none of the Biblical authors mention it once in 66 books.
(A:vi, S: v) 4 “Sh’ma, Yisra’el! Adonai Eloheinu, Adonai echad [Hear, Isra’el! Adonai our God, Adonai is one];
Deuteronomy 6:4 (Complete Jewish Bible)
Jesus is the son of God maam. Jn 3:16, the begotten son of Jehovah. Jesus said we should worship and render sacred service to his God and Father Jehovah Mat 4:10. Proskyneo which in English has many degrees basically meaning to show honor, it is even appropriate to worship men as seen Mat 18:26, be careful to not give what belongs to Jehovah to anyone but Him.
Very good post Viking, I fully agree, and I like the way you defined it as well. Makes perfect sense.
You aren't addressing the Scripture which tells us what that baptism was. You are saying it was a "baptism of annointing", where to do find this in the Bible?
Much love!
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
CoreIssue
Well-Known Member
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
I’ve heard the dogma but no verse in Scripture actually contains this dogma. Many verse say Jesus is a man; no verse says he is God.
This is just part of dualism.
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How was it that he humbled himself, and was found in fashion as a man? This presupposes a pre-existance.
That He humbled Himself shows He previously had a greater exaltation.
It's like saying I became a fireman. I was something before that.
These other statements are the same.
It's this part.
Being in the form of God he took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men.
He took upon him, this speaks of a time before he had that form of a man. A time when He had reputation.
Much love!
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
Supposition on top of supposition. Even if he pre-existed, it most certainly does not mean he is God incarnate.
Jesus is explicitly said to be a man - over and over again. Begotten like us all. Do all men pre-exist before taking human form?
The only man I find any reference to pre-existence is Jesus. He is also the only one ever said to have concurrent terrestrial and celestial existence until after His resurrection, when we could become born of God. He was born of God to begin His terrestrial life.
We were born of Adam. When we receive Jesus, God gives us new birth, so that as terretrial creatures, we become a new being, a celestial creature, the spirit child of God. And interacting terrestrially through these bodies, to the extent that we not yield control to our flesh.
Much love!
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
That’s not what I asked. If he’s a man and pre-exists, then all men must also pre-exist. Just because we do not have more references does not affect the logic involved.
Do all men pre-exist before taking human form? Suppose they do. And further suppose, Jesus being the first born of all creation, is only the first to have his pre-existence referenced.
More intriguing would be why some men pre-exist but not others. Kind of goes against equality. Now, if Jesus were not fully man but being the first born of all creation, something unique, e.g., a man in form only, that would explain things. See how supposition works?
I'd question your suppostion here. What would make that true? Because it happens a certain way in one case, therefore it happens the same in all cases. I don't think that is valid logic.
We don't have to suppose. The language of the Bible shows Jesus existing before His conception, which is why we call this the incarnation, the Word became flesh, not that God put His Word into a prophet's mouth, God could say that if it was what He meant,
Jeremiah 1:9 KJV
Then the LORD put forth his hand, and touched my mouth. And the LORD said unto me, Behold, I have put my words in thy mouth.
But John wrote the Word became flesh, and lived among us. The same that was in the beginning with God. The same that was God. The same that humbled Himself from that exaltation. The same who created all things, the King of Kings and Lord of Lords, who humbled Himself, and took the form of a servant, being found in fashion as a man.
Jesus is special.
Much love!
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