Another Premillennial absurdity

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Spiritual Israelite

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Fact: you now know the saints rule with an iron rod. Fact: I previously referenced Rev 20:4 that those who persevered, did the will of God TO THE END by refusing to worship the beast or take its mark were beheaded for their faith and as a result, came to life and reigned with Christ for a thousand years. Obviously, this is a future time of one thousand years where the saints reign with Christ. So the next question is, how do they rein? Answer: With an iron rod as specified in Rev 2:26. Scripture interprets scripture.
Yet, you are ignoring a lot of scripture that your interpretation of Revelation 20:4 contradicts. But, I guess that's not important to you. Scripture interprets Scripture except when it doesn't agree with your doctrine. That's apparently what you mean.
 
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WPM

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You've been informed. Your choice to ignore Scripture since you didn't reply to what the text states. As Porky Pig says "That's all Folks!"

Where does it say that "the saints will reign with an Iron Rod" for a thousand years?
 

Timtofly

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Ok, so you are adding unto Scripture again. That is not smart. You need you answer the question or admit you are wrong. 2+2=4, not 22.
You take unrelated verses from the OT and claim a thousand is not literal. How is that not the same as taking two verses from the same NT book? Talk about being hypocritical about another person's ability to compare Scripture with Scripture.

Those OT verses are not talking about a future time on earth. They were not even talking about ruling and reigning. They only have the word "thousand" in common. At least you could use verses for your interpretation in the same book, before throwing stones at a plausible interpretation.
 

Timtofly

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Where does it say that "the saints will reign with an Iron Rod" for a thousand years?
Where does Revelation 20 state those thousand years are not literal?

Do you destroy the wicked with an iron rod? According to you, you should be doing that now. When else will this happen?
 

WPM

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Where does Revelation 20 state those thousand years are not literal?

Do you destroy the wicked with an iron rod? According to you, you should be doing that now. When else will this happen?

The whole book is saturated in symbolism. Hello! "A thousand" is used throughout Scripture as a metaphor for a large amount or a long period of time.

Rev 17:12 "And the ten horns which thou sawest are ten kings, which have received no kingdom as yet; but receive power as kings one hour with the beast."

So, the 10 kings receive power for 60 minutes? This is what so many people are abandoning Premil. It hyper-literal approach to all Scripture misses the spiritual meaning of the sacred text.
 
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Timtofly

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The whole book is saturated in symbolism. Hello! "A thousand" is used throughout Scripture as a metaphor for a large amount or a long period of time.

Rev 17:12 "And the ten horns which thou sawest are ten kings, which have received no kingdom as yet; but receive power as kings one hour with the beast."

So, the 10 kings receive power for 60 minutes? This is what so many people are abandoning Premil. It hyper-literal approach to all Scripture misses the spiritual meaning of the sacred text.
The battle of Armageddon only lasts for 60 minutes. That is the ten horns claim to fame.

How many times throughout Scripture is Satan bound for 1000 years?

You are the one with a hyper symbolic view of Revelation, and no one can figure out Revelation.

Then you are are hyper spiritual to boot.
 

WPM

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The battle of Armageddon only lasts for 60 minutes. That is the ten horns claim to fame.

How many times throughout Scripture is Satan bound for 1000 years?

You are the one with a hyper symbolic view of Revelation, and no one can figure out Revelation.

Then you are are hyper spiritual to boot.

Total nonsense, and you know it. Where does the Bible even mention "the battle of Armageddon"? You are making it up as you go.
 

Timtofly

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Total nonsense, and you know it. Where does the Bible even mention "the battle of Armageddon"? You are making it up as you go.
"For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty. Behold, I come as a thief. Blessed is he that watcheth, and keepeth his garments, lest he walk naked, and they see his shame. And he gathered them together into a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon."

I think you meant to say that John was making it up as he wrote Revelation. John is writing down this alledged nonsense, you keep avoiding.
 

WPM

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"For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty. Behold, I come as a thief. Blessed is he that watcheth, and keepeth his garments, lest he walk naked, and they see his shame. And he gathered them together into a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon."

I think you meant to say that John was making it up as he wrote Revelation. John is writing down this alledged nonsense, you keep avoiding.

Where does it mention "a battle"? They are just "gathered."
 

Timtofly

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Where does it mention "a battle"? They are just "gathered."
Read it again:

"For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty. Behold, I come as a thief. Blessed is he that watcheth, and keepeth his garments, lest he walk naked, and they see his shame. And he gathered them together into a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon."

I think you meant to say that John was making it up as he wrote Revelation. John is writing down this alledged nonsense, you keep avoiding.
 

Timtofly

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They are gathered for battle, but there is no battle. God intervenes.
Read it again.

"These shall make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb shall overcome them: for he is Lord of lords, and King of kings."

"For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty. And he gathered them together into a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon."

"And I saw the beast, and the kings of the earth, and their armies, gathered together to make war against him that sat on the horse, and against his army. And the remnant were slain with the sword of him that sat upon the horse, which sword proceeded out of his mouth: and all the fowls were filled with their flesh."

They were all slain by the sword. That is a battle. They did not kill anyone, because the Lamb did all the fighting. God never intervened, because the battle lasted as long as was necessary, one hour.

All of humanity that was left on earth at that point all fit into the valley of Megiddo. They were all slain and it took an hour.

"And the ten horns which thou sawest are ten kings, which have received no kingdom as yet; but receive power as kings one hour with the beast."

The battle of Armageddon was the intervention and these ten kings and their armies never had a kingdom, because they did not even last the one hour they came together to fight.
 

WPM

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Read it again.

"These shall make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb shall overcome them: for he is Lord of lords, and King of kings."

"For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty. And he gathered them together into a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon."

"And I saw the beast, and the kings of the earth, and their armies, gathered together to make war against him that sat on the horse, and against his army. And the remnant were slain with the sword of him that sat upon the horse, which sword proceeded out of his mouth: and all the fowls were filled with their flesh."

They were all slain by the sword. That is a battle. They did not kill anyone, because the Lamb did all the fighting. God never intervened, because the battle lasted as long as was necessary, one hour.

All of humanity that was left on earth at that point all fit into the valley of Megiddo. They were all slain and it took an hour.

"And the ten horns which thou sawest are ten kings, which have received no kingdom as yet; but receive power as kings one hour with the beast."

The battle of Armageddon was the intervention and these ten kings and their armies never had a kingdom, because they did not even last the one hour they came together to fight.

You are proving my case. Do you think Jesus is coming to earth to engage in literal warfare with all these billions of wicked that have overrun your future millennium in a natural battle with the natural sword? No! It does not say that. He destroys them with the Word of His mouth. Your whole narrative is wrong.
 

Timtofly

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You are proving my case. Do you think Jesus is coming to earth to engage in literal warfare with all these billions of wicked that have overrun your future millennium in a natural battle with the natural sword? No! It does not say that. He destroys them with the Word of His mouth. Your whole narrative is wrong.
Revelation 20:9 is 1,000 years after Armageddon.

For one there is currently not even a one billion army to send to the ME. Are you saying the Second Coming cannot happen until there are 3 billion or more humans willing to march against the camp of the saints? You are funny.

At Armageddon there probably won't even be 500 thousand humans left on earth with the mark. In 3.5 years, they will have killed each other off just fighting for resources. Besides all believers will have had their heads severed. There is no camp of the saints in your millennium. They are all dead, beheaded way before Armageddon.

You cannot even place billions of sinners to overrun anything at the moment in your own millennium.

Ok so instead of a sword in hand, the very words and breadth from his mouth takes an hour to kill several hundred thousand humans at Armageddon.
 

WPM

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Revelation 20:9 is 1,000 years after Armageddon.

In your opinion, but not supported by any other Scripture.

For one there is currently not even a one billion army to send to the ME. Are you saying the Second Coming cannot happen until there are 3 billion or more humans willing to march against the camp of the saints? You are funny.

At Armageddon there probably won't even be 500 thousand humans left on earth with the mark. In 3.5 years, they will have killed each other off just fighting for resources. Besides all believers will have had their heads severed. There is no camp of the saints in your millennium. They are all dead, beheaded way before Armageddon.

You cannot even place billions of sinners to overrun anything at the moment in your own millennium.

Ok so instead of a sword in hand, the very words and breadth from his mouth takes an hour to kill several hundred thousand humans at Armageddon.

This is proof we are in Rev 20. After the second coming, there is no more time, sin, death or marriage or procreation.
 

Timtofly

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In your opinion, but not supported by any other Scripture.



This is proof we are in Rev 20. After the second coming, there is no more time, sin, death or marriage or procreation.
Of course Scripture supports what John wrote. 1 Corinthians 15 shows 3 times Jesus presents those made alive:

At the Cross, Jesus presented the OT redeemed out of Abraham's bosom to the Father.

At the Second Coming Jesus presents the church glorified.

At the end of the Millennium reign, Jesus presents all of creation.

We are not told the lengths in 1 Corinthians 15 by Paul, but we know it has been almost 2,000 years since the firstfruits. John tells us the length between the Second Coming and the end.

Are you denying your millennium is 2 millennia? Are you hoping yourself, it will last thousands of more years? You have no clue any length of time on earth, because you refuse to accept literal 1,000 year periods.

There is no procreation in the resurrection to Paradise, the world to come. Paradise is heaven. We are on earth. Not just an age. A totally different location as well. The no procreation phenomenon, happened after the OT was resurrected out of death into eternal life. That was your age to come, you so vehemently deny.

There is not even a resurrection mentioned in 1 Corinthians 15:22-28

"For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all."

According to your own judgment, you foist that into the text. What you condemn of others, you do yourself.

Revelation 20 clearly states a resurrection occurs at the beginning of the mentioned 1,000 years and not just that of Christ. Clearly you change Scripture to fit your own bias. I have no opinion nor doctrine. I just point out what Scripture is stating. My opinion is Scripture.

Your opinion adds to Scripture to get it to make sense. You add recapitulation. You add Christ is the only firstfruit. You change the word firstfruits from plural to singular. You claim Revelation 20 has a resurrection at the end, when the resurrection is at the beginning. Given life is a resurrection. Made alive is changed out of Adam's dead flesh into God's permanent living flesh. Those alive on earth will be made alive. Unless you think those alive on earth have to physically die instead of being made alive. That is still adding to Scripture.

When one is given life, it means they lost it at some point, and it returns. Being made alive is out of Adam's dead condition, not strictly a point of resurrection. You are born dead in Adam. You are born alive in Christ. The two births. The first is physical. The second is spiritual. So the first death, and resurrection is physical. The second death is spiritual, and if you die spiritually in the LOF, the spiritual resurrection would be out of the LOF, the second death. You change the physical resurrection into a second (spiritual) resurrection. That destroys the definition of the first resurrection, and calls for a resurrection out of the LOF, before one is even placed in the LOF. Your doctrine changes everything we are taught in Scripture.

Now your mind can only interpret Scripture though your Amil bias. You cannot even see Satan as being loosed a thousand years after the Second Coming. You seem stuck in your Amil thought processes.

I don't foist a resurrection onto 1 Corinthians 15. I just point out there was a resurrection at the Cross per Matthew 27. You call those made alive at the Cross, only Jesus being resurrected. What happened to those made alive at the Cross? They just died again? Nothing could keep them alive? Could it mean there is literally more than the one Amil single resurrection? The soul was still in Adam's dead state waiting to be physically made alive as well as spiritually allowed into Paradise and God's presence. And souls don't procreate. They were given a physical body that was now prohibited from procreation. It was not necessary to fill up Abraham's bosom, nor Paradise. The redemption of Adam's dead condition would take place over the next 2,000 years, one soul at a time entering Paradise physically. 2 Corinthians 5:1.

Those on earth would never literally proceed those who already were made alive, and allowed into Paradise. Even Paul could not enter before those from the OT. So no one is waiting to enter all at one time. Either they are in Paradise or in Adam's dead state still in death, and no one has ever been made alive to this day, if that is the case. No one is currently seated in heavenly places. That is what your insistence with a singular resurrection is stating. Paul clearly states that those made alive will God bring at the Second Coming to meet up with those on earth. But the meeting place is still in the air. The church does not come to earth at that point, and the New Jerusalem does not descend at that point either. Neither is there an Armageddon event at that point. And people are not burned to a crisp at that point. There is no singularity point according to Amil as in Genesis 1:1 at the Second Coming. The Second Coming is part of the order Paul gave concerning being made alive, including all of creation, not just humanity.

Why would Paul use the words "every man in his own order", if there was only one single event?
 
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WPM

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Of course Scripture supports what John wrote. 1 Corinthians 15 shows 3 times Jesus presents those made alive:

At the Cross, Jesus presented the OT redeemed out of Abraham's bosom to the Father.

At the Second Coming Jesus presents the church glorified.

At the end of the Millennium reign, Jesus presents all of creation.

We are not told the lengths in 1 Corinthians 15 by Paul, but we know it has been almost 2,000 years since the firstfruits. John tells us the length between the Second Coming and the end.

Are you denying your millennium is 2 millennia? Are you hoping yourself, it will last thousands of more years? You have no clue any length of time on earth, because you refuse to accept literal 1,000 year periods.

There is no procreation in the resurrection to Paradise, the world to come. Paradise is heaven. We are on earth. Not just an age. A totally different location as well. The no procreation phenomenon, happened after the OT was resurrected out of death into eternal life. That was your age to come, you so vehemently deny.

There is not even a resurrection mentioned in 1 Corinthians 15:22-28

"For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all."

According to your own judgment, you foist that into the text. What you condemn of others, you do yourself.

Revelation 20 clearly states a resurrection occurs at the beginning of the mentioned 1,000 years and not just that of Christ. Clearly you change Scripture to fit your own bias. I have no opinion nor doctrine. I just point out what Scripture is stating. My opinion is Scripture.

Your opinion adds to Scripture to get it to make sense. You add recapitulation. You add Christ is the only firstfruit. You change the word firstfruits from plural to singular. You claim Revelation 20 has a resurrection at the end, when the resurrection is at the beginning. Given life is a resurrection. Made alive is changed out of Adam's dead flesh into God's permanent living flesh. Those alive on earth will be made alive. Unless you think those alive on earth have to physically die instead of being made alive. That is still adding to Scripture.

When one is given life, it means they lost it at some point, and it returns. Being made alive is out of Adam's dead condition, not strictly a point of resurrection. You are born dead in Adam. You are born alive in Christ. The two births. The first is physical. The second is spiritual. So the first death, and resurrection is physical. The second death is spiritual, and if you die spiritually in the LOF, the spiritual resurrection would be out of the LOF, the second death. You change the physical resurrection into a second (spiritual) resurrection. That destroys the definition of the first resurrection, and calls for a resurrection out of the LOF, before one is even placed in the LOF. Your doctrine changes everything we are taught in Scripture.

Now your mind can only interpret Scripture though your Amil bias. You cannot even see Satan as being loosed a thousand years after the Second Coming. You seem stuck in your Amil thought processes.

I don't foist a resurrection onto 1 Corinthians 15. I just point out there was a resurrection at the Cross per Matthew 27. You call those made alive at the Cross, only Jesus being resurrected. What happened to those made alive at the Cross? They just died again? Nothing could keep them alive? Could it mean there is literally more than the one Amil single resurrection? The soul was still in Adam's dead state waiting to be physically made alive as well as spiritually allowed into Paradise and God's presence. And souls don't procreate. They were given a physical body that was now prohibited from procreation. It was not necessary to fill up Abraham's bosom, nor Paradise. The redemption of Adam's dead condition would take place over the next 2,000 years, one soul at a time entering Paradise physically. 2 Corinthians 5:1.

Those on earth would never literally proceed those who already were made alive, and allowed into Paradise. Even Paul could not enter before those from the OT. So no one is waiting to enter all at one time. Either they are in Paradise or in Adam's dead state still in death, and no one has ever been made alive to this day, if that is the case. No one is currently seated in heavenly places. That is what your insistence with a singular resurrection is stating. Paul clearly states that those made alive will God bring at the Second Coming to meet up with those on earth. But the meeting place is still in the air. The church does not come to earth at that point, and the New Jerusalem does not descend at that point either. Neither is there an Armageddon event at that point. And people are not burned to a crisp at that point. There is no singularity point according to Amil as in Genesis 1:1 at the Second Coming. The Second Coming is part of the order Paul gave concerning being made alive, including all of creation, not just humanity.

Why would Paul use the words "every man in his own order", if there was only one single event?

1 Corinthians 15 proves Amil. There is not mention of your supposed future millennium. Where do you get a thousand years in 1 Corinthians 15:22-24? It is simply not there. You have to force it into the text. This is one of the most troubling aspects of Premil. It is always adding to the sacred text.

Paul confirms the finality of the return of Jesus, in 1 Corinthians 15:22-24, stating, “as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at His coming [Gr. parousia]. Then cometh the end [Gr. telos], when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.”

Please note the careful correlation between the parousia and the telos. This is a truth that is found throughout the NT. They are synonymous with each other. There is absolutely nothing that Premillennialists can do with such a clear and climactic passage apart from deny the obvious or add unto Scripture by inserting “a thousand years” in-between the coming (parousia) of Christ and the end (telos) where it does not belong. This is the dilemma for Premil throughout the Word. They are fighting the obvious.

The Greek simply reads:

Christos – Christ
en – at
autos – His
parousia – coming
eita – then
telos – the end

The coming of the Lord is shown to be the end of the world. There is no gap of time in-between the coming of Christ, the resurrection and the end. They all belong to the one final climactic overall event.

The phrase “he shall have delivered up” comes from the single Greek word paradidomi meaning surrender, yield up, intrust, or transmit. This is what happens to the kingdom when Christ comes. He surrenders it to His Father, He yields it up.

The converse phrase “he shall have put down” comes from the single Greek word katargeo meaning: bring to nought, none effect, or abolish. This is what happens to “all” existing “rule and all authority and power” when Jesus Comes. The rule of man comes to an end and now it becomes the rule of God.
 

WPM

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Of course Scripture supports what John wrote. 1 Corinthians 15 shows 3 times Jesus presents those made alive:

At the Cross, Jesus presented the OT redeemed out of Abraham's bosom to the Father.

At the Second Coming Jesus presents the church glorified.

At the end of the Millennium reign, Jesus presents all of creation.

We are not told the lengths in 1 Corinthians 15 by Paul, but we know it has been almost 2,000 years since the firstfruits. John tells us the length between the Second Coming and the end.

Are you denying your millennium is 2 millennia? Are you hoping yourself, it will last thousands of more years? You have no clue any length of time on earth, because you refuse to accept literal 1,000 year periods.

There is no procreation in the resurrection to Paradise, the world to come. Paradise is heaven. We are on earth. Not just an age. A totally different location as well. The no procreation phenomenon, happened after the OT was resurrected out of death into eternal life. That was your age to come, you so vehemently deny.

There is not even a resurrection mentioned in 1 Corinthians 15:22-28

"For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all."

According to your own judgment, you foist that into the text. What you condemn of others, you do yourself.

Revelation 20 clearly states a resurrection occurs at the beginning of the mentioned 1,000 years and not just that of Christ. Clearly you change Scripture to fit your own bias. I have no opinion nor doctrine. I just point out what Scripture is stating. My opinion is Scripture.

Your opinion adds to Scripture to get it to make sense. You add recapitulation. You add Christ is the only firstfruit. You change the word firstfruits from plural to singular. You claim Revelation 20 has a resurrection at the end, when the resurrection is at the beginning. Given life is a resurrection. Made alive is changed out of Adam's dead flesh into God's permanent living flesh. Those alive on earth will be made alive. Unless you think those alive on earth have to physically die instead of being made alive. That is still adding to Scripture.

When one is given life, it means they lost it at some point, and it returns. Being made alive is out of Adam's dead condition, not strictly a point of resurrection. You are born dead in Adam. You are born alive in Christ. The two births. The first is physical. The second is spiritual. So the first death, and resurrection is physical. The second death is spiritual, and if you die spiritually in the LOF, the spiritual resurrection would be out of the LOF, the second death. You change the physical resurrection into a second (spiritual) resurrection. That destroys the definition of the first resurrection, and calls for a resurrection out of the LOF, before one is even placed in the LOF. Your doctrine changes everything we are taught in Scripture.

Now your mind can only interpret Scripture though your Amil bias. You cannot even see Satan as being loosed a thousand years after the Second Coming. You seem stuck in your Amil thought processes.

Firstly, 1 Corinthians 15:22-24 declares, For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. Then [Gr. eita or thereupon] cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.”

The revelation of Christ described in this reading is here deliberately and plainly associated with “the end.” The whole tenure of the passage is pointing to a climatic time in history when God separates the righteous and wicked forever. It is the occasion when Christ finally presents “up the kingdom to God,” the same time that He “shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.” It is expressly the end for every enemy of the Cross and the termination of every effort from the devil’s kingdom to thwart the plan of God. We thus see the contrast between God’s dealing with the kingdom of God and the kingdom of darkness at the end. One is finally presented “up,” the other is finally put “down.” This all-consummating last day ushers in the end (or completion) of all things.

Significantly, there is no post-Second Advent millennium mentioned (or remotely hinted at) in this reading. The Premillennialist must therefore force it into the passage in order to support his debatable understanding of Revelation 20. Squeezing a thousand years in between the words “his Coming” and “then cometh the end” corrupts the whole sense of the passages and defies the normal rules of biblical interpretation. In fact, the Greek simply reads:

Christos – Christ
en – at
autos – His
parousia – coming
eita – then
telos – the end

Indeed, the word “cometh” in the King James Version doesn’t actually exist in the original but was inserted by the translators. The Greek thus strictly interprets “Christ at his Coming, then the end.” It is that clear-cut. Also of note, the word ‘eita’ translated ‘then’ in the King James Version also interprets ‘thereupon’. Strong's Greek Lexicon defines the Greek word ‘telos’ in this passage as:

1) end
..a) termination, the limit at which a thing ceases to be (always of
..the end of some act or state, but not of the end of a period of
..time)
..b) the end
....1) the last in any succession or series
....2) eternal
..c) that by which a thing is finished, its close, issue
..d) the end to which all things relate, the aim, purpose

Barnes explains in his notes, on the phrase, “Then cometh the end” – “Then is the end; or then "is" the consummation. It does not mean that the end, or consummation is to "follow" that event; but that this "will" be the ending, the winding up, the consummation of the affairs under the mediatorial reign of Christ. The word "end" telos denotes properly a limit, termination, completion of anything. The proper and obvious meaning of the word here is, that then shall be the end or completion of the work of redemption. That shall have been done which was intended to be done by the incarnation and the work of the atonement; the race shall be redeemed; the friends of God shall be completely recovered; and the administration of the affairs of the universe shall be conducted as they were before the incarnation of the Redeemer."

He continues, “Some understand the word "end" here, however, as a metaphor, meaning "the "last," or the rest of the dead;" but this is a forced and improbable interpretation. The word end here may refer to the end of human affairs, or the end of the kingdoms of this world, or it may refer to the ends of the mediatorial kingdom of the Redeemer; the consummation of his special reign and work resulting in the surrender of the kingdom to the Father. The connection demands the last interpretation, though this involves also the former.”

The coming of the Lord is constantly associated with the end or telos or the termination of all things in the New Testament. Moreover, it is always portrayed (much to the injury of the Pretrib theory), as the great hope of the Christian Church.

Christ - the Firstfruits

Secondly, Premillennialists claim that the phrase “the firstfruits” refers solely to the event of the Lord’s resurrection rather than to the eternal reality of who and what He is. They argue such in order to demonstrate that “the end” doesn’t really mean the end. However, Christ was the firstfruits at the resurrection; Christ is the firstfruits reigning now and He will be the firstfruits at His glorious Second Advent; Christ is the eternal firstfruits! 1 Corinthians 15:20 says, “Now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept.”

In the reference here to “firstfruits,” Paul is effectively outlining an existing truth. He is stating how Christ is currently “the firstfruits,” rather than merely was or will be. The reference here to “the firstfruits” therefore is simply made in the context of what Christ is today rather than describing the actual resurrection event that occurred years before Paul wrote this Epistle. That’s why Paul could assuredly write, many years after Christ’s physical resurrection, “NOW is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept.” Paul was simply testifying of the present reality that Christ has “now” become the firstfruits of them that sleep.

In the part of the reading that Premillennialists dispute, the whole focus is undoubtedly the Second Coming and the all-consummating nature of that event, therefore, the reference to Christ being “the firstfruits” is clearly speaking of what Christ is at His Coming. Christ will be “the firstfruits,” and on this basis we – the elect of God – rise.
 

Timtofly

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1 Corinthians 15 proves Amil. There is not mention of your supposed future millennium. Where do you get a thousand years in 1 Corinthians 15:22-24? It is simply not there. You have to force it into the text. This is one of the most troubling aspects of Premil. It is always adding to the sacred text.

Paul confirms the finality of the return of Jesus, in 1 Corinthians 15:22-24, stating, “as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at His coming [Gr. parousia]. Then cometh the end [Gr. telos], when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.”

Please note the careful correlation between the parousia and the telos. This is a truth that is found throughout the NT. They are synonymous with each other. There is absolutely nothing that Premillennialists can do with such a clear and climactic passage apart from deny the obvious or add unto Scripture by inserting “a thousand years” in-between the coming (parousia) of Christ and the end (telos) where it does not belong. This is the dilemma for Premil throughout the Word. They are fighting the obvious.

The Greek simply reads:

Christos – Christ
en – at
autos – His
parousia – coming
eita – then
telos – the end

The coming of the Lord is shown to be the end of the world. There is no gap of time in-between the coming of Christ, the resurrection and the end. They all belong to the one final climactic overall event.

The phrase “he shall have delivered up” comes from the single Greek word paradidomi meaning surrender, yield up, intrust, or transmit. This is what happens to the kingdom when Christ comes. He surrenders it to His Father, He yields it up.

The converse phrase “he shall have put down” comes from the single Greek word katargeo meaning: bring to nought, none effect, or abolish. This is what happens to “all” existing “rule and all authority and power” when Jesus Comes. The rule of man comes to an end and now it becomes the rule of God.
Where is your millennium in the chapter? You have to force it in there as well.

"Then" is that 1,000 year word for you.

God put "then" in there, instead of just "the end".

An amil version of Scripture contrary to God's Word disregards the "then".
 

WPM

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Where is your millennium in the chapter? You have to force it in there as well.

"Then" is that 1,000 year word for you.

God put "then" in there, instead of just "the end".

An amil version of Scripture contrary to God's Word disregards the "then".

You totally avoided every single point i presented. You have to!