From studying scripture thats how..paul was the apostle to the gentiles and this meant that Gods salvation plan and purpose had exceeded just jews being saved and ransomed, and that His testimony from God to them, the gentiles.. 1 tim 2:
4Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
5For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
6Who gave himself a ransom
for all, to be testified in due time. 7Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity. Also, Jesus was said to be a ransom for the many in another scripture: matt 20 28 just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve,
and to give his life as a ransom for many." So how does this verse harmonize with what paul says in 1 tim 2 6 ? Easily, paul is specifically speaking of all the many of which Jesus was speaking in matt 20 28..so all is used of to define of all sorts, as in all sorts of ethnic groups and social status.. This is quite different from your unbiblical slant and inference..