God's Personal Name & New World Translation

  • Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.

    You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

What is God's Personal Name?

  • Yahweh/Adonai/Jehovah

    Votes: 2 33.3%
  • LORD (capital)

    Votes: 2 33.3%
  • Lord (lowercase)

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • Other

    Votes: 2 33.3%

  • Total voters
    6
  • Poll closed .

ScottA

Well-Known Member
Feb 24, 2011
11,761
5,607
113
www.CheeseburgersWithGod.com
Faith
Christian
Country
United States

tigger 2

Well-Known Member
Oct 19, 2017
917
408
63
84
port angeles
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
From the source you used:

Lexicon :: Strong's H3050 -

Part of Speech
proper noun with reference to deity

Root Word (Etymology)
Contraction for יְהֹוָה (H3068), and meaning the same

I'm afraid your idea of research is driven by your beliefs, not the facts. Completely ignoring my research on the matter (including evidence by respected trinitarian scholars) and quoting only the portions of another source that 'prove' your point is what the Watchtower is often accused of.
 
Last edited:

Robert Gwin

Well-Known Member
Mar 19, 2021
6,888
1,587
113
69
Central Il
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
There is an order of things in the breakdown of revelation, but not in the end, which is One as in the beginning.

I too believe there is an order of things in all the Bible as you likely do to sir, Revelation covers the first thing created, as well as many things that are yet future. It stated right off however that it was written for God's slaves, logically then only they would have a good grasp of what is being revealed in it.
 

ScottA

Well-Known Member
Feb 24, 2011
11,761
5,607
113
www.CheeseburgersWithGod.com
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
I too believe there is an order of things in all the Bible as you likely do to sir, Revelation covers the first thing created, as well as many things that are yet future. It stated right off however that it was written for God's slaves, logically then only they would have a good grasp of what is being revealed in it.
You lost me there. I was referring to the name of God being One in the end rather than three or any other, and that even we will refer to ourselves as "I AM." Which is to say, we "shall be perfect just as our Father in heaven is perfect." This we do even now, saying "I am Scott" or "I am Robert", but then with a "new name."
 

tigger 2

Well-Known Member
Oct 19, 2017
917
408
63
84
port angeles
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Do you know the meaning of "Hallelujah"? Why would this phrase be used for the Father in Rev. 19:1-6 if the name were not to be used by Christians?

ScottA, your post #102 did not answer my question. And you clearly did not read the last few paragraphs of my post #97 as you said you did. (Or you simply ignored it.)

Just a little honest examination of "Hallelujah" shows it contains God's personal name (Jah/Jehovah).

“Psalms 113-118 are traditionally referred to as the ‘Hallel Psalms,’ because they have to do with praise to God for deliverance from Egyptian bondage under Moses. Because of this, they are an important part of the traditional Passover service. There is no reason to doubt that these were the hymns sung by Jesus and his disciples on Maundy Thursday when he instituted the Lord’s Supper (Matt. 26:30).

“The word halal is the source of ‘Hallelujah,’ a Hebrew expression of ‘praise’ to God which has been taken over into virtually every language of mankind. The Hebrew ‘Hallelujah’ is generally translated [falsely], ‘Praise the Lord!’ The Hebrew is more technically [more honestly] translated ‘Let us praise Yah,’ the term ‘Yah’ being a shortened form of ‘Yahweh,’ the unique Israelite name for God.” - p. 301, - Nelson’s Expository Dictionary of the Old Testament, Unger and White, Thomas Nelson Publ., 1980.

Hallelujah - Praise ye Jehovah - frequently rendered [falsely] ‘Praise Ye the Lord” - p. 276. “Jah - a shortened form of ‘Jehovah,’” - p. 322, Today’s Bible Dictionary, Bethany House Publishers, 1982.

“HALLELUJAH ... ‘praise ye Jehovah’; allelouia .... In the NT [Hallelujah] is found as part of the song of the heavenly host (Rev. 19:1 ff).” - p. 1323, Vol. 2, The International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, Eerdmans Publ., 1984 printing.

hallelujah: (Heb., hillel, he praises; Jah, form of Yahweh-Jehovah....) Literally, Praise ye Yahweh.” - p. 320, An Encyclopedia of Religion, Ferm (editor), 1945 ed.

“HALLELUJAH - HALLELOUIA [in NT Greek] signifies ‘Praise ye Jah.’ .... In the N.T. it is found in Rev. 19:1, 3, 4, 6, as the keynote in the song of the great multitude in Heaven. Alleluia, without the initial H, is a misspelling.” - p. 520, W. E. Vine, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, Thomas Nelson, Inc., Publishers, 1980.

“ALLELUIA, the Greek form (Revelation 19:1, 3, 4, 6) of the Hebrew Hallelujah = Praise ye Jehovah, which begins or ends several of the psalms (106, 111, 112, 113, etc.).” – Easton’s Bible Dictionary, Thomas Nelson Publ., 1897.

The NT Greek text does have the initial ‘H’ sound. The “misspelling” is in certain English translations (e.g., KJV) which drop the beginning ‘H’ sound: “Alleluia”! However, most respected modern translations do have “Hallelujah” in Rev. 19 (e.g., NIV, NASB, RSV, NRSV, ASV, REB, MLB, Mo, and Barclay).

“Hallelujah....is derived from halal, which means to praise, and Jah, which is the name of God .... here in this chapter [Rev. 19] the original Hebrew form transliterated into Greek, is retained.” - p. 169, Vol. 2, William Barclay, The Revelation of John, Revised Edition, The Daily Study Bible Series, Westminster Press, 1976.

Alleluia, so written in Rev. 19:6, foll., or more properly Hallelujah, Praise ye Jehovah ....” - p. 31. “Jah (Jehovah), the abbreviated form of Jehovah ... The identity of Jah and Jehovah is strongly marked in two passages of Isaiah - 12:2; 26:4.” - p. 276, Smith’s Bible Dictionary, William Smith, Hendrickson Publ.

“Trust ye in Jehovah for ever; for in Jehovah [‘Heb. JAH’ - ASV f. n.], even Jehovah [YHWH], is an everlasting rock.” - Is. 26:4, ASV.
...................................
Since the 4 "Hallelujahs" in Rev. 19 are directed to the Father seated on the throne, it seems clear that the Father is Jehovah and that all other uses of his personal name have been removed from the NT.
 

DavidTaylor

Member
Sep 4, 2022
42
56
18
57
Tennessee
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Jesus is the name above all names, including the personal names YHWH, Yah, and Jehovah.

Luckily for those who have ears, we know the scriptures reveal Jesus is YHWH, the I AM that I AM, so we have no conflict here.
 

Robert Gwin

Well-Known Member
Mar 19, 2021
6,888
1,587
113
69
Central Il
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
You lost me there. I was referring to the name of God being One in the end rather than three or any other, and that even we will refer to ourselves as "I AM." Which is to say, we "shall be perfect just as our Father in heaven is perfect." This we do even now, saying "I am Scott" or "I am Robert", but then with a "new name."

I am thinking that I misunderstood what you were trying to say with your last post sir, my mistake. Yes, we do say I am many times and of course we are not claiming we are God any more than Jesus was when he said it. I am glad that you realize that I AM is not God's name now, but is a quality of His.
 

ScottA

Well-Known Member
Feb 24, 2011
11,761
5,607
113
www.CheeseburgersWithGod.com
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
I am thinking that I misunderstood what you were trying to say with your last post sir, my mistake. Yes, we do say I am many times and of course we are not claiming we are God any more than Jesus was when he said it. I am glad that you realize that I AM is not God's name now, but is a quality of His.
Yes, it is good that we have come full circle...because "God's name" is not the point of the passage of God speaking to Moses.

God did answer Moses with His name as He was known by Israel, but again, that is not the point. The point of the passage is that God first defined Himself...which is the better name, and it is that name that comes out in the gospels first spoken by Jesus as "I am" and then confirmed by the Spirit as the "name above every other name." Which was not spoke of Him either, but only eluded to, a new name Revelation 3:12, Revelation 19:12.
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

Well-Known Member
Oct 29, 2017
4,032
1,119
113
67
Thomaston Georgia
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
The inspired New Testament Greek text uses “Lord” when quoting the Old Testament where the abbreviated name appears.

That’s good enough for me to have peace with using “Lord”.

I don't believe imperfect human beings have the right or authority to take God name out of the scriptures. I also think that any imperfect human or group of imperfect humans that think they have the authority to take God's name out of scripture, are just arrogant humans who think their wisdom supersedes the wisdom and authority of God. God is the one who put his name in the scriptures and he did nothing wrong by putting his name in scripture. It seems to me that people who leave God's name out of scripture, they must really hate God's name, a name that God gave himself and put it in his book, the Bible. I've read of many reasons that imperfect humans give why the name was taken out of Scripture, but they're all imperfect humans reasons for taking it out of Scripture.As I said, imperfect humans wisdom and authority do not supersede the wisdom and authority of God, and God did nothing wrong by putting his name in scripture, and imperfect humans don't have the authority to undo what God has done when he put his name in scripture.
 

Michiah-Imla

Well-Known Member
Oct 24, 2020
6,167
3,287
113
Northeast USA
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
I don't believe imperfect human beings have the right or authority to take God name out of the scriptures.

They didn’t.

God told the inspired writers to write the four letter mystery name.

It shows God’s foreknowledge of the revelation of the name Jesus by which all men would be saved.
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

Well-Known Member
Oct 29, 2017
4,032
1,119
113
67
Thomaston Georgia
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
They didn’t.

God told the inspired writers to write the four letter mystery name.

It shows God’s foreknowledge of the revelation of the name Jesus by which all men would be saved.

I understand that the old testament was written in the ancient Hebrew language which was all consonants, it didn't have vowels. But they knew how to pronounce all the Hebrew words even though they were written in only consonants. So they knew how to pronounce the name of the true God that the four Hebrew consonants represented when they came across the four Hebrew letters.
This name God wanted the whole world to know including his enemies.
Jesus isn't YHWH(Jehovah) he's the only begotten Son of YHWH(Jehovah) God. Jesus is the person YHWH(Jehovah) God used to carry out his purpose to save mankind.

When Jesus taught his disciples to pray, which is the our father prayer, which part of it goes like this, our father in heaven let your name be sanctified or made holy. What name is to be sanctified or made holy because Jesus wasn't talking about his name.
 

Bible Highlighter

Well-Known Member
Feb 17, 2022
4,767
989
113
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Five Reasons Why the New World Translation Should Be Thrown Out:

#1. It's a Translation created to fit the theology of a cult like religion:

(And which ignores basic Bible history):

The Watchtower or the Jehovah's Witnesses had this translation made to fit better with their own theology. It was not an unbiased translation made for all people or men that properly reflects the previous available manuscripts that went before it. In fact, the JW's used the King James Bible before this translation and this translation is radically different than the KJB in tons of places. They said that they attempted to be free of archaisms. Any person who has studied the King James Bible vs. Modern Translation Bible debate for any good length of time knows that the KJB comes from the Textus Receptus manuscripts (NT), and the Modern Translations are based on the Nestle and Aland Critical text (NT) (Which uses the Westcott and Hort text (1881) as one of it's primary textual sources). The New World Translation favors the Westcott and Hort text (Which attempted to dethrone the King James Bible). Westcott and Hort were into Catholicism and the occult and they created a Greek NT text (1881) that was later published into an English version (ASV) (1901). It was not until the NIV that Modern Bibles started become popular in the 1970's. Before that point in time, evangelical churches used the King James Bible. The differences between the Textus Receptus and the Westcott and Hort text are extremely great. Doctrines are changed even. See my post here. So the fact that the JW's did not even know that they were giving up doctrines by switching to the Westcott and Hort text shows that they are not astute Bible students as they would have you believe. The JW's also based their biased translation for the Old Testament (OT) off the Biblia Hebraica. This is bad. Rudolf Kittel was the main editor. Rudolf (not the reindeer) demonstrated anti semitic tendencies in private and popular expression (source). Rudolf's son (Gerhard Kittel) who created the Theological Dictionary of the New Testament joined the Nazi party (source). They said they wanted to be free of archaisms? If that was all, then why did they not stick with the Textus Receptus and Masoretic manuscripts (like the KJB was based upon - which is the Bible they used before)?

#2. Johannes Greber:


The Watchtower Society has appealed to a little-known Bible translation by Johannes Greber, a former Catholic priest, for support of their a god rendering of John 1:1 in the New World Translation.

Greber's translation came about through contact with the spirit world
. In fact, his wife, who was a spirit medium, helped him with this translation:At times he [Greber] was given the correct answers in large illuminated letter and words passing before his eyes. Other times he was given the correct answers during prayer meetings. His wife, a medium of God's Spiritworld was often instrumental in conveying the correct answer from God's Messengers to Pastor Greber.(15)Strange as it may sound the Watchtower Society denounced Johannes Greber's involvement in Spiritism and his translation as coming from demons in their Feb. 15, 1956 The Watchtower, p. 111. But for many years afterward the Watchtower Society still continued to cite Greber's demon-produced translation for support(16). So knowingly, the Watchtower Society appealed to a Bible translation many times, which came from demons, for support of their own New World Translation. That alone speaks volumes. What the demons were communicating through Greber's translation is still being vastly spread today by the New World Translation!

Source:
New World Translation NWT Jehovah's Witnesses Bible JW

#3. Unqualified Translators:

All that one discovers from the WTBTS literature is that the NWT was a translation made “by a committee of anointed witnesses of Jehovah.” Why did the WTBTS not publish the names?

Eventually, the list of six translators became known. Frederick W. Franz was the main translator. Raymond Franz, who eventually left the Jehovah’s Witnesses, wrote the following in his book the Crisis of Conscience (1983) about his uncle Fredrick,

Fred Franz, however, was the only one with sufficient knowledge of the Bible languages to attempt translation of this kind. He had studied Greek for two years in the University of Cincinnati but was only self-taught in Hebrew.

It should be noted that Frederick Franz was Raymond Franz’s uncle and one of the WTBTS’ presidents. It is reported that Frederick Franz, the primary translator of the NWT, had only twenty-one hours of formal classical Greek training at the University of Cincinnati and only two hours of Biblical Greek or Koine Greek. This information was provided in Frederick Franz’s 1911 autobiography in which he published his own college transcript. It is important to note that Koine Greek is the language taught in theological seminaries for Biblical studies. The normal study course lasts for two years or four semesters. This means that the primary translator of the NWT was inadequately trained to perform the task of Bible translation.

The other five translators had an elementary acquaintance with the Greek at the most. Together this information makes the translation of the NWT highly suspect. It is a surprise that these men embarked on a translation task as significant as translating the Bible when they had little or no training in the Greek language.

Source:
How accurate is the New World Translation? – Jehovah's Witnesses Bible

(Continued in next post):
 
Last edited:

Bible Highlighter

Well-Known Member
Feb 17, 2022
4,767
989
113
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
#4. Failed to Alter Their Translation to Fit Their Pet Theology: One Nail or Nails?

Jehovah's Witnesses erroneously believe that Jesus was on a stake and not a cross (and even change the Bible to fit that idea). In one JW picture from JW.org they show Jesus with one nail going through his hands of which you can check out in their website page here.

Yet, in John 20:25 of their own New World Translation (of which you can check out on their own website) states, “Unless I see in his hands the print of the nails...”; In the photo of Jesus they have on their official website with him being on a stake they show only ONE NAIL in his hands. Yet, their own translation on their website says NAILS in his hands. So they are contradicting themselves.

John 20:25 (from their own New World Translation on their own website) presents another problem to the invented man made theology of the JW's, as well. The JW's believe Jesus rose in a spiritual body and not a physical human flesh body. They believe the physical body disintegrated. But John 20:25 (New World Translation) says, “So the other disciples were telling him: “We have seen the Lord!” But he said to them: “Unless I see in his hands the print of the nails and stick my finger into the print of the nails and stick my hand into his side, I will never believe it.” John 20:27 (NWT) says, “Next he said to Thomas: “Put your finger here, and see my hands, and take your hand and stick it into my side, and stop doubting but believe.”

Okay. Why on Earth would a spirit body mimic the physical body? They are not the same thing. The spirit body should not have been harmed by the nails for Thomas to see the nail prints in order to believe. Only Jesus' same body of flesh would have the nail prints and not some spirit body that was incapable of being harmed by the nails. Seeing this translation is supposed to cater to their personal theology, they did a poor job of not making the proper alterations always to their own translation to make it always fit their false additional unbiblical beliefs.

#5. Contradiction involving the JW's Favorite Name of GOD:

Genesis 28:10-13 (Jehovah says that He is the God of Abraham and Isaac)

10 “Jacob departed from Beʹer-sheʹba and kept going toward Haʹran.
11 In time he came to a place and prepared to spend the night there because the sun had set. So he took one of the stones of that place and set it to rest his head on and lay down there.
12 Then he had a dream, and look! there was a stairway set on the earth, and its top reached up to the heavens; and there were God’s angels ascending and descending on it.
13 And look! there was Jehovah stationed above it, and he said:“I am Jehovah the God of Abraham your father and the God of Isaac. The land on which you are lying, to you I am going to give it and to your offspring.”​

NOTE: The above references from Genesis as recorded in the NWT unequivocally contradict what is recorded in Exodus 6:2-3:

Exodus 6:2-3 (NWT) says, ”Then God said to Moses: “I am Jehovah. And I used to appear to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob as God Almighty, but with regard to my name Jehovah I did not make myself known to them.”

If the references in Genesis are true wherein Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob DID KNOW God’s name, Jehovah, and God DID identify Himself to Jacob as Jehovah, then the reference is false in Exodus 6:2-3 wherein God said to Moses that the Name, Jehovah, WAS NOT revealed to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. Conversely, if the reference in Exodus is true wherein Jehovah DID NOT reveal His Name to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, then the ALL of the references in Genesis are false: thus, the ultimate contradiction in the NWT is between Genesis and Exodus. To be facetious, given that Exodus is subsequent to Genesis Jehovah is FORGETFUL according to the NWT, which would make everything He said thereafter completely unreliable.

Source used:
The Jehovah Witnesses’ Bible: It’s Contradictions |
 
Last edited:

Robert Gwin

Well-Known Member
Mar 19, 2021
6,888
1,587
113
69
Central Il
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Yes, it is good that we have come full circle...because "God's name" is not the point of the passage of God speaking to Moses.

God did answer Moses with His name as He was known by Israel, but again, that is not the point. The point of the passage is that God first defined Himself...which is the better name, and it is that name that comes out in the gospels first spoken by Jesus as "I am" and then confirmed by the Spirit as the "name above every other name." Which was not spoke of Him either, but only eluded to, a new name Revelation 3:12, Revelation 19:12.
Jesus never once said I am in reference to that passage Scott, rather he made God's name known. If you feel he did, then please post it sir.
 

ScottA

Well-Known Member
Feb 24, 2011
11,761
5,607
113
www.CheeseburgersWithGod.com
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Jesus never once said I am in reference to that passage Scott, rather he made God's name known. If you feel he did, then please post it sir.
Jesus repeated "I am" many times, and yes, it is easily explained away or disregarded, unless one is inclined to give ear to the Spirit who gives continuity to it all on that narrow way down through all the ages--even stating at the end of such revelations that the name above every name was not given, but is to be "new" rather than old.
 

Bible Highlighter

Well-Known Member
Feb 17, 2022
4,767
989
113
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
God goes by many names in the Bible.
Not sure why a person has to isolate it to just one of His names only (unless they are being wrongfully influenced by outside ideas not found in the Bible).
 

Robert Gwin

Well-Known Member
Mar 19, 2021
6,888
1,587
113
69
Central Il
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Jesus repeated "I am" many times, and yes, it is easily explained away or disregarded, unless one is inclined to give ear to the Spirit who gives continuity to it all on that narrow way down through all the ages--even stating at the end of such revelations that the name above every name was not given, but is to be "new" rather than old.

He sure did as you and I do as well, in fact the term appears 698 times in the KJV. It is important to know however that none of us are claiming to be God because He said it as well as an identifying quality of His once to Moses. Seems like so many including yourself put great emphasis on Ex 3:14 for some reason.
 

ScottA

Well-Known Member
Feb 24, 2011
11,761
5,607
113
www.CheeseburgersWithGod.com
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
He sure did as you and I do as well, in fact the term appears 698 times in the KJV. It is important to know however that none of us are claiming to be God because He said it as well as an identifying quality of His once to Moses. Seems like so many including yourself put great emphasis on Ex 3:14 for some reason.
The reason is as I said, that although the words "I am" are a common thing just as much of what is written that would seem to be merely literary, there is also something there that is only heard by those to whom God makes it known. Is it not brilliant that such a common non-name completely defines God and says "Jehovah" without actually saying it?

But why--why did God not just answer Moses simply saying "Jehovah?" Or why did He not answer saying "Jehovah" first and then define it after rather than before?

It is by no coincidence, but rather to show a pattern from the start of His dealings with the salvation of Israel--that light upon a hill unto every nation and people: A pattern of Who, followed by a defining explanation, followed by Who again. Of which we already know and have the Name, we also have the explanation (but did not fully understand that is what it was), and then comes the "new Name" of Who, which has not yet been revealed. Which is to say, "In the beginning God", then the explanation, then the Revelation.” And it all comes unassumingly...like "I am."
 
Last edited: