Is There Different Beliefs Among Catholics? Chrislam Movement?

[Taken]

No, it is you who has missed the point:

No.

"IF" God appointed men to infallibly convey God’s word to the rest of mankind, then God can use men (the Bishops) in the Church to infallibly convey God’s word to mankind.

IF?

Christ Jesus appointed men to teach and spread "Gods Word."
Gods Word is written in Scriptures, expressly FOR:

2 Tim 3:
[16] All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

You have already acknowledged YOUR Catholic Doctrine Does Not have NEED of Scriptural profitability.

God can use men to infallibly convey His word anytime, anywhere and as many times as He likes - such supernatural acts are not confined to the men who wrote the Bible.

So ? WHO said otherwise?

FOR Catholic Doctrine, one much search the Catholic Doctrine, recorded in Catholic written documents.

FOR Christ's Doctrine, one must search The Lord Jesus' Doctrine, Recorded IN Scripture.

All the Bible writers were effectively Catholic, because the early Church and the Catholic Church are one and the same thing.

It is of a most egregious behavior to:
SPEAK of others what they do not claim...
Especially of the Dead and buried, who themselves made no such claim.

Er, no; that is not how it works. Christ Jesus is the one mediator between God and man,

Er, that Is what I said.

but

the Church is “the body (and) the fullness” of Christ Jesus (Eph 1:22), who is the “head” of the Church (Col 1:18). The head cannot be separated from the body,
therefore
the Church shares Christ’s role as Mediator between God and man. However, the Church's role as mediator is subordinate to Christ’s role as mediator, since the head controls the body.

You neglected to SHOW IN Scripture...
YOUR "BUT" and "THEREFORE"...
Whereby YOU have more than ONE mediator...

1 Tim 2: [5] For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

Furthermore, where does the Bible say there are not mediators between man and “the man, Christ Jesus”?

Scripture Identified The ONE Mediator Between God and men.

WOW...Do you seriously require the Excluded names of Every person ever born to comprehend the ONE mediator between God and men IS specifically and ONLY Christ Jesus?

The Catholic Church contains the "fullness" of Christ (Eph 1:22) and is the “pillar and foundation of the truth” (1Tim 3:15).

So? that is the teaching of your Catholic church doctrine.

Christ's Church and Doctrine is my preference to Trust.

 

[Taken]

Scripture and Christendom disagrees with your perversions.

Not possible, since my agreement IS according to Scripture!

Wrong

.
As I have educated you now about 3 dozen times - THIS is what "Kecharitomene" means:

Completely and perfectly and enduringly filled with God's grace - indicating a PAST event with a PERMANENT result.

Yipes...It is to ad nauseam everyone on this forum has been subjected to your repetitive Catholic claims...
But have not once provided a Greek grammatical source making the same claims.

And you haven't been able to deal with this for several months now . . .

Your repetitive scripted catholic teaching has been dealt with. Stamped REJECTED.

And ALL through Scripture, Jacob is called "Jacob" - even though God changed his name to "Israel".
Jesus is called "Jesus" - even though Scripture gives Him titles like "Immanuel" and "Wonderful Counselor".

Sooooo, what's your point??

The same point that has not changed, nor that you can With Scriptural evidence prove is not true.

Mary was Not Sinless.
ALL Earthly men are conceived, born in and commit Sin.
Claiming she was SINLESS IS turning a TRUTH into a Lie.

 

[BreadOfLife]

Not possible, since my agreement IS according to Scripture!
Yipes...It is to ad nauseam everyone on this forum has been subjected to your repetitive Catholic claims...
But have not once provided a Greek grammatical source making the same claims.

Your repetitive scripted catholic teaching has been dealt with. Stamped REJECTED.

The same point that has not changed, nor that you can With Scriptural evidence prove is not true.

Mary was Not Sinless.
ALL Earthly men are conceived, born in and commit Sin.
Claiming she was SINLESS IS turning a TRUTH into a Lie.

First of all -YOUR views are a perversion of Scripture - not Scriptural "truth".
You've been proven wrong about MANY things like the idea that YOU don't sin - so your views on Mary are just another error.

Secondly- I have repeatedly provided scholarly evidence about Mary's title of "Kecharitomene" and its definition.
Your constant "rejections" don't mean a thing because they are simply the ravings of an angry little anti-Catholic poster - and NOT scholarly evidence.

"It is permissible, on Greek grammatical and linguistic grounds, to paraphrase kecharitomene as completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace."
(Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament)

There is no question of a "secondary" reality, one that would have touched her only ulteriorly. Rather, it pertains to the very identity of Mary. Moreover, the appellation κεχαριτωμένη, in all of Scripture, is reserved to Mary, as if it were her special mark. In fact, some have tried to see in the parallel with Gideon, a demonstration that the κεχαριτωμένη would refer only to a grace that is to come, one to follow immediately. For Gideon is called "valiant warrior" at a time when he is not yet such; therefore κεχαριτωμένη would signify a grace that is not present before the angel's greeting. However, as contrasted with what concerns Gideon, the angel does not apply to Mary a noun bracketed with an adjective, but a perfect participle, a verbal form that refers to a past that is prolonged in the present. Therefore, it is before the angel's greeting, before the Incarnation, that Mary is κεχαριτωμένη.
(Kecharitomene (Lk. 1:28) in the Light of Gen. 18:16-33: A Matter of Quantity François Rossier University of Dayton)

Kecharitōmĕnē is the perfect passive participle of charitŏō. It denotes one who has been and still is the object of divine benevolence, one who has been favored and continues to be favored by God, one who has been granted supernatural grace and remains in this state.[1] Verbs ending in ŏō, such as haimatŏō (turn into blood), thaumatŏō (fill with wonder), spodŏōmai (burn to ashes) frequently express the full intensity of the action. Kecharitomene denotes continuance of a completed action.
(H. W. Smyth, Greek Grammar [Harvard University Press, 1968], p. 108-109, sec 1852:b.)

From hermeneutics.com
KE – perfect tense (prior event/occurrence/happening that is still existing/occurring or happening now)
CHARITO – a gift, something that is free or unmerited
MENE – a female receiver not giver.


YOUR turn, Einstein . . .

 

[Taken]

First of all -YOUR views are a perversion of Scripture - not Scriptural "truth".

That is a False Accusation.

You've been proven wrong about MANY things

No, that is False.
Your saying something is not true, is far from you proving something is not true.

like the idea that YOU don't sin

No, I never stated that idea.
I quoted Scripture, of that Fact, and how and why it applies to me, according to Scripture.

I further agreed with you, that that fact does not apply to you.

Secondly- I have repeatedly provided scholarly evidence

You have not repeatedly provided your source.

"It is permissible, on Greek grammatical and linguistic grounds, to paraphrase kecharitomene as completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace."
(Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament)

There is no question of a "secondary" reality, one that would have touched her only ulteriorly. Rather, it pertains to the very identity of Mary. Moreover, the appellation κεχαριτωμένη, in all of Scripture, is reserved to Mary, as if it were her special mark. In fact, some have tried to see in the parallel with Gideon, a demonstration that the κεχαριτωμένη would refer only to a grace that is to come, one to follow immediately. For Gideon is called "valiant warrior" at a time when he is not yet such; therefore κεχαριτωμένη would signify a grace that is not present before the angel's greeting. However, as contrasted with what concerns Gideon, the angel does not apply to Mary a noun bracketed with an adjective, but a perfect participle, a verbal form that refers to a past that is prolonged in the present. Therefore, it is before the angel's greeting, before the Incarnation, that Mary is κεχαριτωμένη.
(Kecharitomene (Lk. 1:28) in the Light of Gen. 18:16-33: A Matter of Quantity François Rossier University of Dayton)

Kecharitōmĕnē is the perfect passive participle of charitŏō. It denotes one who has been and still is the object of divine benevolence, one who has been favored and continues to be favored by God, one who has been granted supernatural grace and remains in this state.[1] Verbs ending in ŏō, such as haimatŏō (turn into blood), thaumatŏō (fill with wonder), spodŏōmai (burn to ashes) frequently express the full intensity of the action. Kecharitomene denotes continuance of a completed action.
(H. W. Smyth, Greek Grammar [Harvard University Press, 1968], p. 108-109, sec 1852:b.)

From hermeneutics.com
KE – perfect tense (prior event/occurrence/happening that is still existing/occurring or happening now)
CHARITO – a gift, something that is free or unmerited
MENE – a female receiver not giver.

So you finally identify "A Source".

Did you fail to notice...your source did NOT identify Mary as SINLESS!

Try to stay on point, eh.

 

[RogerDC]

The Scriptures teaches no such thing.

Says you. The Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary is based on the Scriptures, and every doctrine of the Catholic Church is God’s infallible truth, because the CC is “the pillar and foundation of the truth” (1Tim 3:15) and is the “fullness” of Christ (Eph 1:22).

You yourself don’t have the power to develop such a doctrine, because the Holy Spirit gives such power only to Christ’s one, true Church - the Catholic Church. Without such power, your doctrines will be superficial, incomplete and unenlightened at best - and as is evident, can often be just plain wrong.

 

[Taken]

The Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary is based on the Scriptures,

Then why not identify the Scriptures that Speak of Mary's Birth?

 

[RogerDC]

Then why not identify the Scriptures that Speak of Mary's Birth?

I don't need Scriptures - I have something better - I have the Church's word and doctrine on the matter (which is based on a verse you've evidently overlooked). Catholic doctrine is just as valid as any Scripture, and is usually clearer.

Your starting point is all wrong - the CHURCH is the primary source of Christian truth, not the Scriptures. And your other problem is, your pride won't allow anyone but yourself to "interpret" the Bible, and the Holy Spirit resists the proud.

 

[Taken]

I don't need Scriptures - I have something better -

Spoken like a bonified catholic.

- the CHURCH is the primary source of Christian truth, not the Scriptures.

No doubt, Making up Doctrine outside of Scripture, has made your catholic church infamous.

 

[RogerDC]

Spoken like a bonified catholic.

Thank you.

 

[Stan B]

I don't need Scriptures - I have something better - I have the Church's word and doctrine on the matter (which is based on a verse you've evidently overlooked). Catholic doctrine is just as valid as any Scripture, and is usually clearer.

Your starting point is all wrong - the CHURCH is the primary source of Christian truth, not the Scriptures. And your other problem is, your pride won't allow anyone but yourself to "interpret" the Bible, and the Holy Spirit resists the proud.

Such a transparently false religion embracing the religion of the snake in the Garden of Eden.

God declares in Scripture, that all Scripture is God breathed!! Satanic Romanism declares that God is a liar, and the demonic spirits governing Rome are the truth!! Duh !!!!!!!!!!!!

 

[Taken]

First of all -YOUR views are a perversion of Scripture - not Scriptural "truth".

Making an accusation is but you stating your own opinion, which you have yet to figure out holds no merit.

You can quote any express point I have said...quote me...not your words...and Scripture itself can reveal its Validity!

 

[Taken]

Such a transparently false religion embracing the religion of the snake in the Garden of Eden.

God declares in Scripture, that all Scripture is God breathed!! Satanic Romanism declares that God is a liar, and the demonic spirits governing Rome are the truth!! Duh !!!!!!!!!!!!

RogerDC stating "he does not need Scriptures"...(post # 287)

IS Very Telling.

RogerDC stating "he has SOMETHING BETTER" (than Scriptures)...

IS Intriguing.

RogerDC stating "catholic doctrine" is all he requires...

IS very Telling.

It Tells us, he is completely Unaware; Gods Word Teaches TO Verify, what one is told/taught Against Scripture, TO SEE if what one IS told or taught IS acceptably Valid, according TO God Himself.

It tells us, he has accepted the Word of the CREATED over and above the CREATOR, (which by his own admission; "he does not need".)

He can not get any plainer than that:
His standing is clear, to God, AND any man, hearing his own declarations.

Glory to God,
Taken

 

[Taken]

RogerDC said:
"The Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary is based on the Scriptures."

Taken asked:
"Then why not identify the Scriptures that Speaks of Mary's Birth?"

RogerDC said:
"Catholic doctrine is just as valid as any Scripture".

So Where IS this Scriptural Basis, that RogerDC claims: Mary's Supposed Immaculate Conception, IS Based on?

Well uh...RogerDC...can not Reveal His so called Scriptural "BASIS"...
because it does not Exist!

His claim ONLY is contained IN His catholic doctrine...and thus is a false claim that Mary's supposed Immuaculate Conception IS BASED IN Scripture.

Cunning and deceptive...and obvious is his standing.
@ Stan B

Glory to God,
Taken

 

[BreadOfLife]

Making an accusation is but you stating your own opinion, which you have yet to figure out holds no merit.

You can quote any express point I have said...quote me...not your words...and Scripture itself can reveal its Validity!

I already have destroyed your bizarre and arrogant claims that you "cannot" sin.
I've also Scripturally obliterated your ignorant claims about Mary having sinned.

 

[BreadOfLife]

RogerDC said:
"The Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary is based on the Scriptures."
Taken asked:
"Then why not identify the Scriptures that Speaks of Mary's Birth?"
RogerDC said:
"Catholic doctrine is just as valid as any Scripture".
So Where IS this Scriptural Basis, that RogerDC claims: Mary's Supposed Immaculate Conception, IS Based on?
Well uh...RogerDC...can not Reveal His so called Scriptural "BASIS"...
because it does not Exist!

His claim ONLY is contained IN His catholic doctrine...and thus is a false claim that Mary's supposed Immuaculate Conception IS BASED IN Scripture.
Cunning and deceptive...and obvious is his standing.
@ Stan B

Glory to God,
Taken

Like I said - I've already proven her sinlessness.
Here it is again, in case you were asleep . . .

κεχαριτωμένη (Kecharitomene) (Luke 1:28) is defined as:
Having been completely, perfectly and ENDURINGLY endowed with grace, which is a perfect passive participle, indicating a completed action with a PERMANENT result.

"COMPLETED"
"ENDURINGLY"
"PERMANENT"

This isn't just a "past" event. It is a permanent one.
Go buy yourself a dictionary . . .

Whereas we are BEING endowed with grace throughout our lives, BEING sanctified and BEING made perfect – Mary was ALREADY completely sanctified and perfectly endowed with grace - PERMANENTLY.

This indicates a sinless person.

 

[Taken]

I already have destroyed your bizarre and arrogant claims that you "cannot" sin.

No. That is false.
I have declared and repeated on this forum, my Declaration and Submission IN Christ The Lord Jesus.

I have provided detailed Scripture that reveals all the Gifts given a person IN Christ.

ONE Gift inparticular, IS the individual receiving the SEED of God, and becomes Adopted By God, and becomes a "son of God". <--- That is my status...
You HAVE NOT proven otherwise.

I have provided SCRIPTURE, that EXPRESSLY states the Absolute inability of a man Born Again OF Gods Seed being Able to AGAIN Commit Sin....and WHY it is Impossible.

1 John 3:
[9] Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin,
Because he is born of God.

You have Neither Proved, I am NOT born of God...or that the Scripture IS not True.

So stop pretending your Accusations and Name calling is Evidentiary proof it isn't.
Your false accusations, name calling and self back-patting amounts to no more, than a show of your opinion, without facts, regurtated in a snarky manner.

I've also Scripturally obliterated your ignorant claims about Mary having sinned.

Again, you display a false claim, as always with your self-back patting.

You have NOT provided One Scriptural quote speaking ANY express language that Mary was SINLESS, from her own birth or otherwise.

Repeating your opinions, your Catholic doctrine, your selected so called scholars....are utterly hearsay...

For something SO intrinsic to your Belief, I find it astounding, that, you CAN NOT quote ONE Scripture that Validates Mary was naturally born without Sin.

You Can't... Because...it doesn't Exist.
It doesn't Exist IN Scripture...Because it would not be IN harmony with multiple other Scriptures.

Your Catholic Doctrine of Mary being naturally born without sin...is a MADE up doctrine of Gentile Catholic men, and Not IN Scripture.

You can not accept the Truth...doesn't affect me....nor does your accusations and name calling Change the Truth or make your corrupt doctrine TRUTH.

 

[BreadOfLife]

No. That is false.
I have declared and repeated on this forum, my Declaration and Submission IN Christ The Lord Jesus.

I have provided detailed Scripture that reveals all the Gifts given a person IN Christ.

ONE Gift inparticular, IS the individual receiving the SEED of God, and becomes Adopted By God, and becomes a "son of God". <--- That is my status...
You HAVE NOT proven otherwise.

I have provided SCRIPTURE, that EXPRESSLY states the Absolute inability of a man Born Again OF Gods Seed bing Able to AGAIN Commit Sin....and WHY it is Impossible.
1 John 3:[9] Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin,
Because he is born of God.

You have Neither Proved, I am NOT born of God...or that the Scripture IS not True.

So stop pretending your Accusations and Name calling is Evidentiary proof it isn't.
Your false accusations, name calling and self back-patting amounts to no more, than a show of your opinion, without facts, regurtated in a snarky manner.

I've absolutely destroyed your arrogant claims that you are "unable" to sin by showing you the SCRIPTURAL WARNINGS to born again Christians about staying on the right path or LOSING their security (Matt. 7:19-23, Matt. 10:22, Matt. 24:13, Matt. 25:31–46, John 15:1-6, Rom. 11:22, 1 Cor. 9:27, 1 Cor. 4:4, 1 Tim. 4:1, Heb. 3:6, Heb. 3:12-14, Heb 6:4-6, Heb. 10:26-27, 2 Pet. 3:17, 1 John 2:24, 1 John 5:13, Rev. 3:5, Rev. 22:19).
You are NOT immune to these verses . . .

Whether or not you are born of God - I don't know. But I DO know that you worship a different god than the Almighty God of Scripture.
YOUR false god lied about becoming human.
The God of Scripture actually DID become human and died for our sins.

Again, you display a false claim, as always with your self-back patting.

You have NOT provided One Scriptural quote speaking ANY express language that Mary was SINLESS, from her own birth or otherwise.

Repeating your opinions, your Catholic doctrine, your selected so called scholars....are utterly hearsay...

For something SO intrinsic to your Belief, I find it astounding, that, you CAN NOT quote ONE Scripture that Validates Mary was naturally born without Sin.

You Can't... Because...it doesn't Exist.
It doesn't Exist IN Scripture...Because it would not be IN harmony with multiple other Scriptures.

Your Catholic Doctrine of Mary being naturally born without sin...is a MADE up doctrine of Gentile Catholic men, and Not IN Scripture.

You can not accept the Truth...doesn't affect me....nor does your accusations and name calling Change the Truth or make your corrupt doctrine TRUTH.

And ALL of your denials and whining don't change the meaning of Kecharitomene - not ONE BIT.

I've given you definitions from Greek Lexicons , scholarly commentaries Protestant and Catholic, linguistic breakdowns, etc.

All YOU do is complain about it - but you offer nothing in the way of a scholarly linguistic refutation.
Good job . . .

 

[Triumph1300]

Where does it say in the Bible that Mary was naturally born without sin.
I did not see an answer to that question.

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

You guys are asking each other questions, but I see no answers.
You both are ignoring each others questions and resort to insults and name calling.

Sad.

 

[Taken]

Like I said - I've already proven her sinlessness.

No you have not.

You have repeated yourself to ad nauseam, trying to pound the point Mary was Full of Grace...

So? No ONE said she wasn't!

It is ON your one hand insistance that:
Mary being Full of Grace...occurED at specifically, the moment of her birth...

LOL, based on what? Scripture that says she was Gifted Gods Grace at the moment of her Birth?

Study history... men desiring to believe in Christ...were questioning How could a woman born in sin, birth Jesus who is Expressly without sin.
and deciding gee, Mary herself had to be without Sin.
It was centuries later, YOUR Pope, declared that man-made up nonsense Official Catholic Doctrine...
And To boot, began teaching, the same nonsense you push...TITLE, perfect past particle...translates by the doctrine of man, PRECISELY at the time of her birth.

Scripture makes Zero mention of Mary being excepted from sin!

Scripture IS clearly Explicit...ALL earthlings are Conceived in Sin, are Born in Sin, Commit Sin. Come forth from a corrupt seed of man, are sustained in the womb, via the mother's blood....And Jesus is the ONLY one Excepted from those things.

Mary's Womb was expressly Virgin, and chosen, and Used for the body of Jesus to Occupy and be revealed coming forth from.

Mary's seed, blood, will, had nothing to do with Jesus being in her womb, and you have been expressly shown that IN Scripture.

Whereas we are BEING endowed with grace throughout our lives,

.

So? Receiving Gods Grace...is receiving Gods unmerited favor...It is Never taught receiving Gods Grace means the person is Sinless!
And IF you think Mary did not continue receiving Gifts based on her receiving more of Gods Grace ...think again...
She was Gifted the indwelling Holy Spirit AFTER Jesus DEATH and resurrection and ascension, along with other believers.

BEING sanctified

No, Sanctification is an act performed BY God. As long as there are people on Earth, God offers Sanctification to people.
Individuals receive particular Gifts from God Only Once...
Sanctification IS Setting one Apart.
That is a ONE Time Gift from God.

and BEING made perfect –

On going? For individuals IN Christ? No.
They are already Perfected IN Christ.
Expressly accounted Sanctified (set apart),
Expressly a new creature. God can See it, man can not physically see it, but they Can understand it.

Mary was ALREADY completely sanctified and perfectly endowed with grace - PERMANENTLY...

Mary was chosen for a special task...
And was Expressly told the Lord was WITH her.
That is not something new. Many men were chosen for special tasks and told the Lord was WITH them.
What was exclusive, was a Woman being chosen for a special task...and WHY she would be revealed among women.

This indicates a sinless person.

Malarkey! It expressly reveals Mary received unmerited Grace from God...

per usual....
Not one Scripture:
1) That says Mary was SINLESS
2) That says receiving a fullness of Gods Grace MEANS SINLESS.
3) That says any of mankind IS SINLESS.

Not surprised...there are no Scriptures to support your claims.

 

[BreadOfLife]

No you have not.

You have repeated yourself to ad nauseam, trying to pound the point Mary was Full of Grace...

So? No ONE said she wasn't!

It is ON your one hand insistance that:
Mary being Full of Grace...occurED at specifically, the moment of her birth...

LOL, based on what? Scripture that says she was Gifted Gods Grace at the moment of her Birth?

Study history... men desiring to believe in Christ...were questioning How could a woman born in sin, birth Jesus who is Expressly without sin.
and deciding gee, Mary herself had to be without Sin.
It was centuries later, YOUR Pope, declared that man-made up nonsense Official Catholic Doctrine...
And To boot, began teaching, the same nonsense you push...TITLE, perfect past particle...translates by the doctrine of man, PRECISELY at the time of her birth.

Scripture makes Zero mention of Mary being excepted from sin!

Scripture IS clearly Explicit...ALL earthlings are Conceived in Sin, are Born in Sin, Commit Sin. Come forth from a corrupt seed of man, are sustained in the womb, via the mother's blood....And Jesus is the ONLY one Excepted from those things.

Mary's Womb was expressly Virgin, and chosen, and Used for the body of Jesus to Occupy and be revealed coming forth from.

Mary's seed, blood, will, had nothing to do with Jesus being in her womb, and you have been expressly shown that IN Scripture.

So? Receiving Gods Grace...is receiving Gods unmerited favor...It is Never taught receiving Gods Grace means the person is Sinless!
And IF you think Mary did not continue receiving Gifts based on her receiving more of Gods Grace ...think again...
She was Gifted the indwelling Holy Spirit AFTER Jesus DEATH and resurrection and ascension, along with other believers.

No, Sanctification is an act performed BY God. As long as there are people on Earth, God offers Sanctification to people.
Individuals receive particular Gifts from God Only Once...
Sanctification IS Setting one Apart.
That is a ONE Time Gift from God.

On going? For individuals IN Christ? No.
They are already Perfected IN Christ.
Expressly accounted Sanctified (set apart),
Expressly a new creature. God can See it, man can not physically see it, but they Can understand it.

Malarkey! It expressly reveals Mary received unmerited Grace from God...

per usual....
Not one Scripture:
1) That says Mary was SINLESS
2) That says receiving a fullness of Gods Grace MEANS SINLESS.
3) That says any of mankind IS SINLESS.

Not surprised...there are no Scriptures to support your claims.

Another angry, psychotic rant with ZERO evidence to refute Mary's title of "Kecharitomene" (Luke 1:28).
A thousand angry opinions do NOT equal ONE single fact.

THAT'S why you lose debates - because you refuse to do your homework . . .