Jesus Christ Was Under Law

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Anthony D'Arienzo

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"DPMartin,
your premise that Jesus Christ Was Under Law is way off, incorrect, and contrary to what Jesus says:

Not at all; Gal4
4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
 

JunChosen

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There is only one covenant. This business of two covenants is alien to the Bible. The Old Testament believers looked forward to Christ and the New Testament believers look back to Christ.
 
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DNB

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your premise that Jesus Christ Was Under Law is way off, incorrect, and contrary to what Jesus says:


Mar 2:25  And he said unto them, Have ye never read what David did, when he had need, and was an hungred, he, and they that were with him? 
Mar 2:26  How he went into the house of God in the days of Abiathar the high priest, and did eat the shewbread, which is not lawful to eat but for the priests, and gave also to them which were with him? 
Mar 2:27  And he said unto them, The sabbath was made for man, and not man for the sabbath: 
Mar 2:28  Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath. 

since Jesus says He even in His status in the flesh as Son of man, or any other man for that matter, isn't under the law, what are you talking about?
Your understanding of the Atonement and Christ's mission 'is way off', 'what are you talking about'?

Matthew 5:17-19
5:17. "Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to fulfill. 18. "For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until all is accomplished. 19. "Whoever then annuls one of the least of these commandments, and teaches others to do the same, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever keeps and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
 
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DNB

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There is only one covenant. This business of two covenants is alien to the Bible. The Old Testament believers looked forward to Christ and the New Testament believers look back to Christ.
The principle of several Covenants is both definitive and the entire premise of the Bible. God engaging with man to make His name known throughout the world. By doing so, He established different Covenants that would ultimately reveal who He is, and His divine plan. But, in order to do so, when dealing with a free self-determining agent as man, one particular Covenant needed to both precede and proceed another. The Law of Grace is meaningless if it did not appear after the Law of Works. The Abrahamic Covenant and that of Christ, would not bear such a divine auspice had they not been so disparate from one another, with the Levitical Law coming between them. Their eternal significance bears more weight in this manner.
But the Rainbow Covenant, or Noahic Covenant, preceded all the latter Covenants restricting God to act in a manner that we all deserve, complete annihilation.

All allusions to Christ in the Old Testament, were not salvific or even understood by those contemporaneous to the writings. Faith made men righteous, but Christ was unknown, especially a suffering Messiah.
 
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n2thelight

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Have you ever given much thought to Jesus when he walked the earth was under the law. Why would God "make him to be under the law." Law was what Israel was under when Jesus walked the earth. There was no grace as a message for humanity yet it was all law.

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. - John 1:14.

The scriptures says he was he was full of grace and truth but that was not his message because he was under law. When they came to him to snare him with their questions about sin what did he say to them "what does Moses law say." He was full of grace and truth we see that in how he handled the people but the law was still at work and had not been fulfilled yet. He healed on the Sabbath, what was he doing? Giving a glimpse into his grace because he could not preach grace being under law. He couldn't preach grace as a message, a New Testament if you will. That was not in place yet, the law was still active for obedience and relationship with God.

To mix the two is a complete distortion of the word. It is what we call "commingling" or mixing law with grace. The scriptures do not do it and for believers to do it is a total lack of understanding. I use a term I call "trying to get a message out of 66 books." You cannot get grace out of mixing it with law, it's oil and water, day and night, law and grace. Two completely different ways of handling the people spiritually, you cannot not do it because they do not fit each other. It may look good and even sound good on certain levels but like oil and water they will not mix and are there own separate entity. Nothing wrong with law, it is of God, he put it in place and used it for living but it nolonger exsists for obedience and relationship, it has been fulfilled.

What is grace? Grace is Christ in you, grace is a person. Think about grace as a message or covenant or New Testament. They all have to do with Christ in you, you have none of these things without Christ in you. They come about by Christ in you. It is like "the gospel" Paul called it, it is a person. The word of God, the Holy written scriptures always personifies Christ, the Christ in you. When you read Paul and he mentions Christ, it will never be a Christ outside of you it will always be the Christ that is in you. Follow Paul long enough as he suggests and you see his message of Christ in you has to do with living the life of another Christ in you. Since you have no other life but Christ it is a very good idea to pay close attention to Paul and "my gospel," he called it. He preachs nothing but Christ as life, and that life is the only life of the believer. Believers trying to extract a life from scriptures will miserably fail if they do not see Christ as that life.

Reread the first chapter of John and look at the life in John's first chapter as well as the rest of the book. What separates John from most other writers is he wrote some years after Paul and knew what Paul was talking about. The book of John is more than just history as the other synoptic Gospel's, John's book should have been one of the Epistles. John had a revelation of Jesus Christ as did Paul. When you talk about John's revelation it is not his revelation given to him that he penned in the book of "the revelation." That is history and future events having nothing to do with "revelation of Christ in you."

For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ. - Galatians 1:12.

To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory: - Colossians 1:27.

I understand what you saying,however Christ was the law and still is the law,as He didn't change it..

The volume of the Book was written of Him ,The first prophecy was about Him ,I maybe not completly understand your post,so don't chastise me right now
 
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marksman

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only one word, "Covennt" he came underd the law to fulfil it, meaning to bring it to an end.

Galatians 4:5 "To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons."

Hebrews 8:7 "For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second."
Hebrews 8:8 "For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:"
Hebrews 8:9 "Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord."
Hebrews 8:10 "For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:"
Hebrews 8:11 "And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest."
Hebrews 8:12 "For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more."
Hebrews 8:13 "In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away."

PICJAG.

Hebrews 8:10 "For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:"

A question. What was the purpose of putting God's laws into the mind of the house of Israel and writing them on their hearts if they were no longer valid as many contend?
 
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soul man

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I understand what you saying,however Christ was the law and still is the law,as He didn't change it..

The volume of the Book was written of Him ,The first prophecy was about Him ,I maybe not completly understand your post,so don't chastise me right now

No correction here, I appreciate your comments
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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There was no grace as a message for humanity yet it was all law.
The time <it was all law> in the history of creation lasted less than its first Sixth Day of the week between sundown and the next. For directly after, "in the evening cool of day" of the Seventh Day of God's works, it since has ever been all the Law of God's Grace, Mercy, Forgiveness, Justice and Reconciliation, as He called after man and wife, talked to them and covenanted his faithfulness to cover their sin and shame with His Own Righteousness. "For God That Day the Seventh Day from all his works rested."
 
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soul man

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Hebrews 8:10 "For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:"

A question. What was the purpose of putting God's laws into the mind of the house of Israel and writing them on their hearts if they were no longer valid as many contend?

That is written to the house of Israel, they were a covenant people. For when God takes his purpose for Israel back up (covenants and promises), whenever that is most believe it will be at the end of the millennial reign. That is not written to the church. The church is a new creation heavenly people birthed by the father, not an earthly covenant people as Israel. Israel is on hold now as far as the covenants, they must believe just like anyone else to receive salvation.
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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your premise that Jesus Christ Was Under Law is way off, incorrect, and contrary to what Jesus says:


Mar 2:25  And he said unto them, Have ye never read what David did, when he had need, and was an hungred, he, and they that were with him? 
Mar 2:26  How he went into the house of God in the days of Abiathar the high priest, and did eat the shewbread, which is not lawful to eat but for the priests, and gave also to them which were with him? 
Mar 2:27  And he said unto them, The sabbath was made for man, and not man for the sabbath: 
Mar 2:28  Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath. 

since Jesus says He even in His status in the flesh as Son of man, or any other man for that matter, isn't under the law, what are you talking about?

I shall tell you and everyone else who love this here type of 'debate', that ALL of you NEVER would have participated, have you not had the Seventh Day Sabbath of the LORD GOD'S Fourth Commandment Law in your vizier. And YES, with saying this I DO IMPLY AND MEAN TO SAY every and all of these diatribes AS ALL AND EVERYONE OF YOU partaking in such <<under the law>> discussions, are hypocrites. Because you would never have used the same madness against ANY OTHER Law of <the Law>. Or would You? Then WHY NOT?! SHOW how you would make or have made the same and or same kind of 'argument', and against which Law, of the ONE LAWGIVER? You won't. It is clear, it is proven, you never would and you never will; it's ONLY the Fourth Commandment which for centuries has innumerable times been dressed up BY ITS HATERS, as their straw-man for putting on fire and destruction. Yet every time it has come forth from their puny stakes, unscathed, the HOLY DAY AND HONOURABLE OF THE LORD GOD BECAUSE IT IS THE LAW OF GOD AND NOT OF MAN!
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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That is written to the house of Israel, they were a covenant people. For when God takes his purpose for Israel back up (covenants and promises), whenever that is most believe it will be at the end of the millennial reign. That is not written to the church. The church is a new creation heavenly people birthed by the father, not an earthly covenant people as Israel. Israel is on hold now as far as the covenants, they must believe just like anyone else to receive salvation.
Dust your hands with glee now; you have found favour with Christianity. Face the Real Judge later maybe it turns out He's for Jews only as well.
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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Gal4
4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.

AMEN
The Law of God made of a woman, made under the law TO REDEEM them who are under the Law. No redemption had Jesus not been under the Law : OF GOD : "for as long as He lived" EVEN WHILE ALIVE HAVING DIED THE DEATH OF DEATH UNDER THE LAW.
So much for the teaching of men whose Big Chief Sitting Bull is Rome's Pope.
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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To mix the two is a complete distortion of the word. It is what we call "commingling" or mixing law with grace. The scriptures do not do it and for believers to do it is a total lack of understanding. I use a term I call "trying to get a message out of 66 books." You cannot get grace out of mixing it with law, it's oil and water, day and night, law and grace. Two completely different ways of handling the people spiritually, you cannot not do it because they do not fit each other. It may look good and even sound good on certain levels but like oil and water they will not mix and are there own separate entity. Nothing wrong with law, it is of God, he put it in place and used it for living but it nolonger exsists for obedience and relationship, it has been fulfilled.

Romans 5. Verse 20,21 for one.

<<Nothing wrong with law, it is of God,>> says who? Are you, God?

<<law no longer exsists ... it has been fulfilled>> says who? Have you fulfilled it? No? Then how does it no longer <exist> for you?

<<law no longer exsists ... it has been fulfilled>> Whose Law? Jesus' Law? Well, Jesus said the Law which He fulfilled shall never pass, not so much as a iota or tittle of it. You must help Jesus right.
 

101G

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Hebrews 8:10 "For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:"

A question. What was the purpose of putting God's laws into the mind of the house of Israel and writing them on their hearts if they were no longer valid as many contend?
GINOLJC, to all.

the Laws of God was alway Spiritual... HIM and he, GOD, Jesus now reside in us. before he did not WALK IN US. now he do.

PICJAG
 
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DPMartin

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I shall tell you and everyone else who love this here type of 'debate', that ALL of you NEVER would have participated, have you not had the Seventh Day Sabbath of the LORD GOD'S Fourth Commandment Law in your vizier. And YES, with saying this I DO IMPLY AND MEAN TO SAY every and all of these diatribes AS ALL AND EVERYONE OF YOU partaking in such <<under the law>> discussions, are hypocrites. Because you would never have used the same madness against ANY OTHER Law of <the Law>. Or would You? Then WHY NOT?! SHOW how you would make or have made the same and or same kind of 'argument', and against which Law, of the ONE LAWGIVER? You won't. It is clear, it is proven, you never would and you never will; it's ONLY the Fourth Commandment which for centuries has innumerable times been dressed up BY ITS HATERS, as their straw-man for putting on fire and destruction. Yet every time it has come forth from their puny stakes, unscathed, the HOLY DAY AND HONOURABLE OF THE LORD GOD BECAUSE IT IS THE LAW OF GOD AND NOT OF MAN!

you've got a lot to say for someone who speaks like he doesn't know the God of Abraham Isaac and Jacob through Jesus Christ and just don't get it.

read:

Rom 3:25  Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; 
Rom 3:26  To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. 
Rom 3:27  Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith. 
Rom 3:28  Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law. 
Rom 3:29  Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also: 
Rom 3:30  Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith. 
Rom 3:31  Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law. 

therefore not under, but by faith establish.
 

soul man

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Romans 5. Verse 20,21 for one.

<<Nothing wrong with law, it is of God,>> says who? Are you, God?

<<law no longer exsists ... it has been fulfilled>> says who? Have you fulfilled it? No? Then how does it no longer <exist> for you?

<<law no longer exsists ... it has been fulfilled>> Whose Law? Jesus' Law? Well, Jesus said the Law which He fulfilled shall never pass, not so much as a iota or tittle of it. You must help Jesus right.
Reread thread you have no idea what was said or what's going on
 

marksman

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GINOLJC, to all.

the Laws of God was alway Spiritual... HIM and he, GOD, Jesus now reside in us. before he did not WALK IN US. now he do.

PICJAG
I don't think that answers my question and what doe GINOLJC MEAN? Is that a drink of some kind that includes gin?