Yes, I know that and did not say otherwise. The point I've made several times now is that the words are synonyms and can be used interchangeably.
I wouldn't say the words are synonymous even though they both are "the end". But one is very specifically "the end of the world", and the other always "the end" of whatever is being referenced. For instance vs. 14 says after the Gospel of the Kingdom is preached in all the world, then "the end" shall come. What end, since the word translated is
télos ? Christ doesn't say then shall the end of the world come. Why, if that is what He means? Whenever we read "the end of the world" it's always translated from
syntéleia. Why not here if that's what Christ means?
The Gospel had been preached to all the known world in the first century AD. Since the end of the world did not come then, what ended?
Matthew 24:14 (KJV) And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then
shall the end come.
Even though the Gospel had been preached in all the known world in the first century, we know that all the nations of the world did not exist then, so the Gospel preached to the world then had not yet been a witness unto all nations.
How can you think that about 1 Corinthians 15:24? Look at the context of the verse.
1 Corinthians 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. 23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. 24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
Paul associated "the end" directly with the time of Christ's coming when the dead in Christ will be resurrected. So, what makes you believe that 1 Cor 15:24 is not referring to Christ coming again? I think it clearly does.
Paul was speaking of those who had already died in faith before Christ became the firstfruits of them. They had part in the resurrection of Christ, the first resurrection when they ascended in spiritual body to heaven with Christ. This isn't speaking of the bodily resurrection that Paul says will come when the last trump sounds. Paul is speaking of a spiritual rising to life after death since Christ has become the firstfruits. Just as He promised, Christ came for those who were already dead and buried in Him
Ephesians 4:8-10 (KJV) Wherefore he saith,
When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men. (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth? He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.)
Wait a minute now. Please think about this carefully. For one thing, the end of the ceremonial and sacrificial laws (the old covenant) came when Jesus died on the cross, not when the city and temple buildings were destroyed. To me, that is not debatable. People may have foolishly continued following those laws after His death and resurrection, but that doesn't mean He hadn't already effectually put an end to them.
In a legal sense, yes the ceremonial and sacrificial laws ended with the cross. But actually the Jews continued the Mosiac Laws until they no longer had a holy city or holy temple.
Also, when Paul wrote that the gospel had been preached to the then known world (Romans 10:18, Colossians 1:6, etc.) he wrote that in the late 50s and early 60s AD. That was several years before the city and temple were destroyed. So, it's your contention that Jesus was saying in Matthew 24:14 that the gospel would be preached to the known world and then several years later the end would come?
You think it would come suddenly after the known world had been preached the Gospel, but
télos does not indicate the end of whatever is in view could not be several years after that. Once again, you can see the definition for yourself. It's simply the conclusion of whatever it points to. Something that would finally utterly end.
τέλος télos, tel'-os
from a primary τέλλω téllō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly, the point aimed at as a limit, i.e. (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination (literally, figuratively or indefinitely), result (immediate, ultimate or prophetic), purpose); specially, an impost or levy (as paid):—+ continual, custom, end(-ing), finally, uttermost.
I think you're missing the context of 1 Cor 15:24. The context is in relation to the resurrection of the bodies of the dead in Christ at His second coming. Don't you believe that all of the dead in Christ will be resurrected at the same time when Jesus comes, as Paul taught in 1 Thessalonians 4:14-17? He also indicated that they will all be resurrected at the same time in 1 Corinthians 15:51-52 and indicated it will happen "at the last trumpet". It is when He comes and the dead in Christ are all raised at the last trumpet in the future that the end will come and He will deliver the kingdom that He has been reigning over already for a long time to the Father.
No Paul is NOT speaking of the bodily resurrection he later says will come when the last trump sounds. He is speaking of the spiritual rising of the dead in Christ after He became the firstfruits. What does it mean when Paul writes in Adam we all die, but all who are in Christ are made alive? We're made alive in Christ when we are born again, so through His Spirit in us only our body dies, just as Paul tells us. Our body is dead and buried, then in Christ we go from being natural, physical body to being a spiritual body in heaven, where we are as is the Lord from heaven, heavenly/celestial bodies. Just as in life we bear the image of natural Adam, so too in death we shall bear the image of the heavenly.
