What you just told me has no parallel to the christian Jews in the book of Hebrews.
Hebrews is written to the Jews that converted to Christ.
Therefore the book of Hebrews is speaking to christians not Jews that are still following the old law.
Hebrews 2:1
Therefore we must give the more earnest heed to the things we have heard ,lest we drift away.
Are the lost close to God?
Or are they separated from God?
Isaiah 59:2
But your sins have seperated you from God; and your sons have hidden His face from you,
Those who are saved have there sins taken away by the blood of Christ.
Are christians In, with, near God?
Ephesians 2:13
But now In Christ Jesus you who once were afar off have been brought near by the blood of Christ.
Now that the scriptures have established those who are partakers of Christ are must be IN Christ, near Christ etc.
The only logical conclusion is those who are lost are seperated from Christ.
Are the lost near?
Can the lost drift away Hebrews 2:1? Or are they already afar off?
Those who have become partakers of Christ are already IN Christ.
Are the lost IN Christ? Do the lost partake of Christ?
It is impossible to leave grow cold, fall out of love with a wife you were never married to!
You can only drift away from a wife that you have been once close to!
Hebrews 3:12
Beware brethren(Christian brethren) lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief in departing from the living God.
Hebrews 3:14
For we(christians) have become partakers of Christ if we hold the beginning of our confidence stedfast till the end,
Your interpretation says some are christians some never were saved.
Impossible friend!
The lost have never been with Christ. They are already seperated from God.
Only those who were once with Christ can be partakers of Christ.
Your interpretation is error.
You have to make ridiculous exegesis/eisgesis to support your OSAS, church doctrine.
Fact: saved christians do sin willfully. And some even fall away to once again be lost for eternity,
Hebrews 10:26-31;32
Once again, Hebrews 3:14 - For we
have become [past tense Gk. verb, gegonamen, meaning we have become already] partakers of Christ, if we hold fast the beginning of our confidence steadfast to the end. Notice that this is essentially a repeat of verse 6, where we have read: but Christ was faithful as a Son over His house -
whose house we are, if we hold fast our confidence and the boast of our hope firm until the end.
*The wording is not - "and you will become partakers of Christ (future indicative) if you (future indicative) you hold fast." It is rather - "you have been and now are partakers of Christ, (demonstrative evidence) if in the future you hold fast."
In Hebrews 4:1-2, we read - "For indeed the gospel was preached to US as well as to THEM; but the word which THEY heard did not profit THEM,
not being mixed with faith in those who heard it. For we who have believed do enter that rest, as He has said: "So I swore in My wrath, 'They shall not enter My rest," although the works were finished from the foundation of the world. Obviously, not all of these Hebrews were believers. Notice that verses 2-3 make a
distinction between
US who have BELIEVED and do enter that rest and THEM who heard the word but did not mix faith with what they heard and will not enter that rest because of UNBELIEF. Allow that to sink in,
You can depart
from God, but not be “of” God. In 1 John 2:19, we read they went out
from us, but they were not “of” us.. Get the picture?
In regards to Hebrews 10:26, To "sin willfully" in the Greek carries the idea of deliberate intention that is habitual, which stems from rejecting Christ deliberately. This is continuous action, a matter of
practice. Now we don't walk along our daily life and "accidentally" fall into a pit called sin. We exercise our will but, the use of the participle clearly shows continuous, willful, action. One's lifestyle or bent of life. The
unrighteous practice sin (1 Corinthians 6:9-10; Galatians 5:19-21);
not the righteous, who are born of God. (1 Corinthians 6:11; 1 John 3:9)
If the word 'sanctified' in Hebrews 10:29 is used to describe saved people who lost their salvation, then we have a
contradiction because the writer of Hebrews in verse 10 said
"sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all" (Hebrews 10:10) and in verse 14, we read,
"perfected for all time those who are sanctified." (Hebrews 10:14) So in Hebrews 10:10, we clearly read
..WE have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. In Hebrews 10:14, we read -
For by one offering He has perfected for all time THOSE who are sanctified. To go from sanctified back to un-sanctified would be in
contradiction here.
*NOWHERE in the context does it specifically say the person who "trampled under foot the Son of God, and has regarded as unclean the blood of the covenant" was "saved" and/or "lost their salvation." The reference to "the blood of the covenant that sanctified him" in verse 29 "on the surface" appears to be referring to a Christian, but this overlooks the fact that the word translated "sanctified" (which is the verb form of the adjective "holy") which means "set apart," and doesn't necessarily refer to salvation.
Strong's Concordance
hagiazó: to make holy, consecrate, sanctify
Original Word: ἁγιάζω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: hagiazó
Phonetic Spelling: (hag-ee-ad'-zo)
Definition: to make holy, consecrate, sanctify
Usage: I make holy, treat as holy, set apart as holy, sanctify, hallow, purify.
*In 1 Corinthians 7:14, Paul uses it to specifically refer to non-Christians who are
"sanctified" or
"set apart" by their believing spouse.
(And by this Paul does not mean that they are saved). A non-Christian can be "set apart" from other non-Christians without experiencing salvation as Paul explained. So the word "sanctified" means to be "set apart." If the word "sanctified" simply meant saved, then you would have to say that the seventh day was saved (Genesis 2:3), the tabernacle was saved (Exodus 29:43), Moses saved the people after coming down off the mountain (Exodus 19:14), the priests and the Levites saved themselves (1 Chronicles 15:14), the Father saved the Son (John 10:36), the Son saved Himself (John 17:19) and many other things that do not line up with scripture.
In verse 39, the writer of Hebrews sets up the
CONTRAST that makes it clear to me that he was referring to make believers/nominal Christians, not saved people: But
WE are not of those who draw back to perdition, but OF THOSE who believe to the saving of the soul. Those who
draw back to perdition do not believe to the saving of the soul and those who
believe to the saving of the soul do not draw back to perdition.
So after considering the
CONTEXT, it seems most likely that "he was sanctified" should be understood in the sense of someone who had been "set apart" or identified as a professing believer in the Hebrew Christian community of believers, but later renounces his identification with other believers, by rejecting the "knowledge of the truth" that he had received, and trampling under foot the work and the person of Christ himself. This gives evidence that his identification with the Hebrew Christian community of believers was
only superficial and that he was not a genuine believer.
