I have added to this post which I posted previously on this forum section. Muslims keep questioning the integrity of the Gospels, much to their own downfall.Does the Qur'an verify the modern claim of Muslims that the Bible is changed? Not really, in Sura 3: 3 the Qur'an confirms the Revelations that came before it:
It is He who sent down to thee (step by step), in truth, the BOOK, CONFIRMING WHAT WENT BEFORE IT; and He sent down the Torah (of Moses) and the Gospel (of Jesus) (Sura 3:3)
According to the Qur'an Muhammad was required to consult those who read the previous Revelations, in case he doubted his own revelation (the Qur'an).
If you Muhammad are in doubt regarding that which we have revealed to thee, ask THOSE who READ the BOOK from BEFORE YOU? (Sura 10:94).This above passage reveals several vital pieces of information.
1. If the Previous Revelations were corrupted, why does the passage not explicitly verify this?2. The Jews and Christians read the previous Revelations in Muhammad's lifetime which implies, in connection to point 1 that they read a non-corrupt text!3. If the Previous Revelation was corrupted, why did Allah demand Muhammad to consult them?4. The text implies that Muhammad could doubt his own revelation (the Qur'an), what sort of a prophet doubts the revelation from God. Notice also Allah's wording 'if you Muhammad are in doubt', this is loose and verifies that Muhammad has a loose connection to Allah and vice versa; Allah does not seem to know whether Muhammad doubts or not, neither can he interfere and convince Muhammad, which implies that Allah has not control over the matter, and secondly Allah is depended or either upon the previous Revelations (which in this context are not corrupted) or corrupted Scripture (that is if we follow the modern Muslims view of Bible corruption that consequently contradicts the Qur'an)Furthermore, according to the passage above, the previous revelations, the Bible verify the Qur'an. That is of course a serious error, unless the Muslim is willing to believe in Jesus' 'divinity', 'death' and 'resurrection' however, the passage it does reveal Muhammad's concept of the Bible.We leave it with the Muslim to figure out the messThe Qur'an seems also to suggest that the Bible and the Qur'an are one Book:
Hast thou not turned thy thought to those who have been given a PORTION OF THE BOOK? They are invited to the Book of Allah, to settle their dispute, but a party of them turn back and decline (Sura 3:23)
I can't see I agree with that, but we get the full picture, the author of the Qur'an presumes that all the books agree with the Qur'an and that the Qur'an fits the previous revelations.The Qur'an also states that the Torah and the Gospel is with the Jews and Christians in Muhammad's lifetime, and again there is not mention of corruption:
...whom they find written in the Torah and the Gospel that IS WITH THEM (Sura 7:156-157)
Obviously, if the Injeel was corrupted the Qur'an would explicity confirm this, yet it does not! Rather it confirms that the Christians and the Jews read the books, they possess them, that these books are one with the Qur'an and confirm each other. Does not sound like Bible corruption to me.Why is there no reference to Bible corruption? Exactly, since the modern Islamic myth of Bible corruption was unheard of at this point!MUSLIMS TODAY GO AGAINST A FUNDAMENTAL RULE AND DOCTRINE IN THE QUR'ANThe Qur'an advises the Jews and Christians not to trash nor criticise their own books but to follow them
Say, O people of the book! You are not founded on anything until you PERFORM the TORAH and the GOSPEL, and what was revealed to you from your Lord? (Sura 5:68-71)
If the Bible was corrupted, why does the Qur'an encourage the believers to perform it?Muhammad and the Muslims are required to believe in all the Books
The Messenger believeth In what hath been revealed to him from his Lord, as do the men of faith, each one (of them) believeth in Allah, His angels, HIS BOOKS, and His messenger. WE MAKE NOT DISTINCTION (they say) between one and another of his messengers. And they say: ?We hear, and we obey: (we seek) Thy forgivness, our Lord, and to Thee is the end of all journeys? (Sura 2:285)
This does not refer to the first Injeel or first Torah but the Injeel and the Torah as they appear and are read in Muhammad's time. Why would Allah reveal such a statement if the previous Revelations were corrupted.The Muslim is required to exclaim his belief in the Previous Revelations, he is not permitted to criticise them:
Be courteous when you argue with People of the Book except with those among them who do evil. Say: We believe in that which is revealed to us and which was revealed to you. Our God and your God is one. (29:46)
Basically a good lesson to all you Muslim who criticise the Bible AND ITS TEACHINGS; the Qur'an does not permit it; so let me encourage the Muslim readers: be good and obedient Muslims and exclaim what the Qur'an orders you to, that you believe in the Qur'an and the Bible and the same God.Interestingly, no mention of Bible corruption here either; but why should it, why would Allah command, the Jews, Christians and the Muslims to believe in a corrupted book?It seems that Allah does not dare to criticise or attack the Bible! Now if Allah (who is divine) does not find himself capable of doing so, what makes the Muslim (who is only human) capable of doing so?The Muslim who does not believe in the previous Revelations as they were read in Muhammad's time has gone astray:
O ye who believe! Believe in Allah and his Messenger, and the SCRIPTURE WHICH HE SENT TO HIS MESSENGER, AND the SCRIPTURE WHICH HE SENT TO THOSE BEFORE (HIM). Any who denieth Allah, His angels, His BOOKS, His messengers, and the day of judgement, hath gone fare astray (Sura 4:136)
Interesting! Unless the Muslim believes in the Bible as it was possessed, read, understood by the Jews and Christians in Muhammad's life, he cannot be a true Muslim, he has wandered fare astray! I guess the Muslim needs to read his own book, or learn from his own book or at least obey his own book. I find it fascinating that we Christians have to teach the Muslim about about his own book.Now lets consider the challenge:Challenge 1: If the Bible teaches Bible corruption, you Muslim need to provide a passage from the Qur'an that teaches the Muslims explicitly is to believe in the original Injeel but the first century, but reject the Injeel that existed in Muhammad's time. THE QUR'AN NEVER TEACHES THIS!!! Go ahead and try, but at the same time, if you manage the challenge, explain the passage in the light of the passages already referred to, since we would have a serious contradiction. Challenge 2: If the Muslim follows the modern myth of Bible corruption, Sura 4: 136 states that such a person has gone a stray and can therefore not be a true and good Muslim. One the other hand, If the Muslim is to be a good Muslim and believe the Bible, he has to believe in its teaching as well, in Jesus death on the cross, his resurrection, atonement and the notions of his divine nature; and hence such a Muslim who follows the Qur'an cannot be a Muslim either So what I would like to know, what is a Muslim?
It is He who sent down to thee (step by step), in truth, the BOOK, CONFIRMING WHAT WENT BEFORE IT; and He sent down the Torah (of Moses) and the Gospel (of Jesus) (Sura 3:3)
According to the Qur'an Muhammad was required to consult those who read the previous Revelations, in case he doubted his own revelation (the Qur'an).
If you Muhammad are in doubt regarding that which we have revealed to thee, ask THOSE who READ the BOOK from BEFORE YOU? (Sura 10:94).This above passage reveals several vital pieces of information.
1. If the Previous Revelations were corrupted, why does the passage not explicitly verify this?2. The Jews and Christians read the previous Revelations in Muhammad's lifetime which implies, in connection to point 1 that they read a non-corrupt text!3. If the Previous Revelation was corrupted, why did Allah demand Muhammad to consult them?4. The text implies that Muhammad could doubt his own revelation (the Qur'an), what sort of a prophet doubts the revelation from God. Notice also Allah's wording 'if you Muhammad are in doubt', this is loose and verifies that Muhammad has a loose connection to Allah and vice versa; Allah does not seem to know whether Muhammad doubts or not, neither can he interfere and convince Muhammad, which implies that Allah has not control over the matter, and secondly Allah is depended or either upon the previous Revelations (which in this context are not corrupted) or corrupted Scripture (that is if we follow the modern Muslims view of Bible corruption that consequently contradicts the Qur'an)Furthermore, according to the passage above, the previous revelations, the Bible verify the Qur'an. That is of course a serious error, unless the Muslim is willing to believe in Jesus' 'divinity', 'death' and 'resurrection' however, the passage it does reveal Muhammad's concept of the Bible.We leave it with the Muslim to figure out the messThe Qur'an seems also to suggest that the Bible and the Qur'an are one Book:
Hast thou not turned thy thought to those who have been given a PORTION OF THE BOOK? They are invited to the Book of Allah, to settle their dispute, but a party of them turn back and decline (Sura 3:23)
I can't see I agree with that, but we get the full picture, the author of the Qur'an presumes that all the books agree with the Qur'an and that the Qur'an fits the previous revelations.The Qur'an also states that the Torah and the Gospel is with the Jews and Christians in Muhammad's lifetime, and again there is not mention of corruption:
...whom they find written in the Torah and the Gospel that IS WITH THEM (Sura 7:156-157)
Obviously, if the Injeel was corrupted the Qur'an would explicity confirm this, yet it does not! Rather it confirms that the Christians and the Jews read the books, they possess them, that these books are one with the Qur'an and confirm each other. Does not sound like Bible corruption to me.Why is there no reference to Bible corruption? Exactly, since the modern Islamic myth of Bible corruption was unheard of at this point!MUSLIMS TODAY GO AGAINST A FUNDAMENTAL RULE AND DOCTRINE IN THE QUR'ANThe Qur'an advises the Jews and Christians not to trash nor criticise their own books but to follow them
Say, O people of the book! You are not founded on anything until you PERFORM the TORAH and the GOSPEL, and what was revealed to you from your Lord? (Sura 5:68-71)
If the Bible was corrupted, why does the Qur'an encourage the believers to perform it?Muhammad and the Muslims are required to believe in all the Books
The Messenger believeth In what hath been revealed to him from his Lord, as do the men of faith, each one (of them) believeth in Allah, His angels, HIS BOOKS, and His messenger. WE MAKE NOT DISTINCTION (they say) between one and another of his messengers. And they say: ?We hear, and we obey: (we seek) Thy forgivness, our Lord, and to Thee is the end of all journeys? (Sura 2:285)
This does not refer to the first Injeel or first Torah but the Injeel and the Torah as they appear and are read in Muhammad's time. Why would Allah reveal such a statement if the previous Revelations were corrupted.The Muslim is required to exclaim his belief in the Previous Revelations, he is not permitted to criticise them:
Be courteous when you argue with People of the Book except with those among them who do evil. Say: We believe in that which is revealed to us and which was revealed to you. Our God and your God is one. (29:46)
Basically a good lesson to all you Muslim who criticise the Bible AND ITS TEACHINGS; the Qur'an does not permit it; so let me encourage the Muslim readers: be good and obedient Muslims and exclaim what the Qur'an orders you to, that you believe in the Qur'an and the Bible and the same God.Interestingly, no mention of Bible corruption here either; but why should it, why would Allah command, the Jews, Christians and the Muslims to believe in a corrupted book?It seems that Allah does not dare to criticise or attack the Bible! Now if Allah (who is divine) does not find himself capable of doing so, what makes the Muslim (who is only human) capable of doing so?The Muslim who does not believe in the previous Revelations as they were read in Muhammad's time has gone astray:
O ye who believe! Believe in Allah and his Messenger, and the SCRIPTURE WHICH HE SENT TO HIS MESSENGER, AND the SCRIPTURE WHICH HE SENT TO THOSE BEFORE (HIM). Any who denieth Allah, His angels, His BOOKS, His messengers, and the day of judgement, hath gone fare astray (Sura 4:136)
Interesting! Unless the Muslim believes in the Bible as it was possessed, read, understood by the Jews and Christians in Muhammad's life, he cannot be a true Muslim, he has wandered fare astray! I guess the Muslim needs to read his own book, or learn from his own book or at least obey his own book. I find it fascinating that we Christians have to teach the Muslim about about his own book.Now lets consider the challenge:Challenge 1: If the Bible teaches Bible corruption, you Muslim need to provide a passage from the Qur'an that teaches the Muslims explicitly is to believe in the original Injeel but the first century, but reject the Injeel that existed in Muhammad's time. THE QUR'AN NEVER TEACHES THIS!!! Go ahead and try, but at the same time, if you manage the challenge, explain the passage in the light of the passages already referred to, since we would have a serious contradiction. Challenge 2: If the Muslim follows the modern myth of Bible corruption, Sura 4: 136 states that such a person has gone a stray and can therefore not be a true and good Muslim. One the other hand, If the Muslim is to be a good Muslim and believe the Bible, he has to believe in its teaching as well, in Jesus death on the cross, his resurrection, atonement and the notions of his divine nature; and hence such a Muslim who follows the Qur'an cannot be a Muslim either So what I would like to know, what is a Muslim?
