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Ah! The folly of personal interpretations of scripture. No wonder we have 30,000 plus Protestant denominations with as many varying doctrines.101G said:that flesh and blood was not conceived "of" Mary, but rather "in" Mary. neither of herself, or any other human. Mary was not the biological Mother of our Lord. she was only the surrogate mother that birthed the child of flesh, blood and bone. Mary had nothing to do with Jesus the Christ conception. and the only thing she had to do with our Lord is to bring into this world the body that he entered into. and that's all. that conception was "of" no human creature/being. Matthew 1:20 "But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost". Mary, nor Joseph had anything do with the conception, only Mary birthed flesh, bone, and blood. so no sin, or anything else was passed on.
Jesus was the Son of God, Just incase you didn't know, He had God's divine nature, Not the Adamic sinful nature.Mungo said:"It’s not written that way, but the meaning is the same."
In other words you made that up. If it was clear you could actually quote the text. It's your personal interpretation.
And as I said - it depends what you mean by "pray". There are different meanings to the word in different contexts.
Do you want to go into the whole what do we mean by "praying" to Mary & the Saints?
Jesus was fully human. Therefore ALL meaning literally ALL must include Jesus.
Babies, small children and the seriously mentally deficient cannot personally sin. But again ALL if it means literally ALL must include them.
Yes, they have the effects of the original sin of Adam, but not personal sin.
Mary needed a saviour to save her from the effects of Adams sin but she did not personally sin.
Alanforchrist said:Jesus was the Son of God, Just incase you didn't know, He had God's divine nature, Not the Adamic sinful nature.
Mary did have the Adamic sin nature, And that means she needed to be saved in order to have God's divine nature, 2 Pet 1: 4.
Jesus didn't just die to save our personal sins, He died and rose again to give us a brand new life.
Jn 5: 26, Says God and Jesus had the Zoe life of God, And in Jn 10: 10, Jesus says we have the Zoe life of God, also see. 2 Cor 5: 17.
So Mary needed saving to have the Zoe nature of God, As she still had the Adamic sin nature.
If Mary rejoiced in God her saviour, The she admited that she was saved, So she also must have been a sinner, If she wasn'r a sinner, she wouldn't have needed saving.
The Bible rests it's case, catholic loose.
How is it possible that Mary received Adam's immaculate nature when it no longer existed?Mungo said:Mary was saved from the effects of Adam's sin by being conceived with Adam's original immaculate nature. That was due to the saving work of Jesus. That is why she needed a saviour. She did not need a saviour because she had personally sinned.
ChristRoseFromTheDead said:How is it possible that Mary received Adam's immaculate nature when it no longer existed?
A child received it's inheritance from its father, not its mother. So she received her inheritance from a corrupted Adam, and Jesus received his perfect inheritance from his perfect father.
No, I am not missing the point. Mary was a righteous woman, but still a sinner. Otherwise, she would not have had to offer a sin offering at the temple.(Luke 2:22-24) And God did not "plan for her from the beginnings of the earth", for where is Scriptural proof of your assertions ?Mungo said:You are missing the point here. We are in a unique situation.
Jesus is unique in the whole history of the Universe. Not just unusual, or exceptional, or special, but utterly unique. His incarnation is unique and that makes Mary unique. God planned for her from the beginnings of the earth. Therefore you cannot just apply the normal rules to her.
Of course Mary gave the ceremonial offering because she was obeying the Law of Moses as a good Jewish woman not because she needed to be purified of sin, just as Jesus accepted John’s baptism which was a baptism of repentance though Jesus himself had nothing to repent of.
If you look at the text of Leviticus 12 you will see the instruction (verse 4)
And she shall then continue in the blood of her purifying three and thirty days; she shall touch no hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying be fulfilled. .
Now Jesus, her child was a “holy thing” (Luke 1:35) so should Mary not have touched Jesus for 41 days? Should she not have held him in her arms, or fed him?
Moreover Leviticus 12 says And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child…
But Mary did not conceive seed. She conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit not male seed.
Your arguments about Leviticus 12 are simply inapplicable.
Another point. You say:
“This impressed on her that she was sinful, and with the bearing of children, sin was being passed on to her sons and daughters, who in turn, passed sin onto their descendants.”
If sin was passed on to her sons and daughters did Mary pass sin on to her son?
If not why not? Could it be because Mary was immaculately conceived and therefore could not pass sin onto Jesus?
There was no sin in childbirth. It was a ritual (ceremonial) offering.Guestman said:No, I am not missing the point. Mary was a righteous woman, but still a sinner. Otherwise, she would not have had to offer a sin offering at the temple.(Luke 2:22-24) And God did not "plan for her from the beginnings of the earth", for where is Scriptural proof of your assertions ?
She was chosen from the very beginning of time. She was prepared for her role by being immaculately conceived so that she would be a perfect and holy person for God's son.Guestman said:She was chosen because both her and her husband to be Joseph, were righteous and Jehovah God recognized that they were the right "parents" to raise his Son till adulthood.(Matt 1:19) Just as Zechariah and Elizabeth were selected by Jehovah for them to bring to birth John the Baptist because they too were righteous. (Luke 1:5, 6)
[SIZE=12pt]And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.(Lk 1:35 - KJV)[/SIZE]Guestman said:Mary was not to "touch any holy thing", not person, such as the holy utensils nor could she come into the sanctuary or tabernacle, for it was considered as defiling the tabernacle. Leviticus 15:31 says: "And you must keep the sons of Israel separate from their uncleanness, that they may not die in their uncleanness for their defiling of my tabernacle, which is in their midst."
God is Spirit.Guestman said:And Mary did "conceive seed" for Jesus was born as a human, being called the "Son of man."(Matt 8:20) Conceiving "seed" does not have to be from a human father, for God is our Father just as males are fathers. We pray to him, calling him our "Father", for he created us, conceiving us.(Gen 1:26; Matt 6:9) Ps 100:3 says: "Know that Jehovah is God. It is he that has made us, and not we ourselves." You are "straining out the gnat and gulping down the camel", trying to maintain that Mary was sinless.(Matt 23:24)
Guestman said:The Catholic teaching of the Immaculate Conception of Mary is just another of the false religious teachings promoted by Catholicism. This dogma maintains that from the moment of her conception, she was free of sin even till death. This is rejected by the Bible. I might add that anyone who is sinless does not die, for it is Adamic sin that causes one to grow old and die.
For example, when Jesus was teaching, a woman spoke up and said: "Happy is the womb that carried you and the breasts that you sucked !" How did Jesus respond ? Did he speak favorably of his mother Mary ? No. In fact, he said nothing of his mother, but stated: "No, rather, Happy are those hearing the word of God and keeping it."(Luke 11:27, 28) Why was not one word was said of Mary if she was such a "saint" and "sinless"?
On an earlier occasion, when he attended a marriage feast, when his mother said that "they have no wine", how did Jesus respond ? He corrected her, saying: "What have I to do with you, woman ? My hour has not come yet."(John 2:3, 4) How could she be sinless and receive a reproof from Jesus who truly was sinless ?(1 Pet 2:22) Simply because she was a "sinner" like all of us.
What you are suggesting is unbiblical. The Adamic nature was condemned to death; it cannot be repaired. We receive a new life and walk in it by putting the old nature to death. That is the saving work of Christ.Mungo said:Do you think God cannot repair what has been damaged? That was Jesus' saving work in Mary
We receive our human nature from both our human mother and our human father. Jesus did not have a human father so he received his human nature only from Mary
What you are saying is unbiblical.ChristRoseFromTheDead said:What you are suggesting is unbiblical. The Adamic nature was condemned to death; it cannot be repaired. We receive a new life and walk in it by putting the old nature to death. That is the saving work of Christ.
This doctrine you believe is an example why many won't go near a catholic church. Way too many unbiblical traditions of men.taught as doctrine.
We are conceived in sin, for David wrote: "Look ! With error I was brought forth with birth pains, and in sin my mother conceived me."(Ps 51:5) Under the Mosaic Law. a woman who gave birth had to offer a sin offering to show that both she and her offspring are sinful, in need of a redeemer. Mary thus confessed to her hereditary sinfulness, acknowledging that she was not sinless, immaculate, but in need of atonement, bringing Jesus to the temple in Jerusalem on the 40th day after his birth.Mungo said:There was no sin in childbirth. It was a ritual (ceremonial) offering.
She was chosen from the very beginning of time. She was prepared for her role by being immaculately conceived so that she would be a perfect and holy person for God's son.
Jesus was conceived pure and immaculate because Mary was pure and immaculate. As Job said “Who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? There is not one.” (Job 14:4).
Gen 3:15 “I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed” Her seed is Jesus and the “her” is Mary. God promises enmity between Mary and Satan. Now enmity is being an enemy. When we sin we are not being an enemy of Satan but doing his will rather than God’s So here in the garden God is promising a woman who will totally oppose Satan – who will not sin.
[SIZE=12pt]And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.(Lk 1:35 - KJV)[/SIZE]
God is Spirit.
Spirits do not have seed
It is not a false teaching nor is it rejected by the Bible.
Your examples are false.
Jesus did not rejected his mother in Luke 11:27, 28. He was pointing out that keeping the word of God is important.
Who heard and kept the word of God more than Mary?
Mary conceived the true Word of God in her womb.
Elizabeth said "And blessed is she that believed: for there shall be a performance of those things which were told her from the Lord." (Lk 1:25)
Nor did Jesus correct or reprove his mother in John 2:3,4).
Jesus was actually deferring to Mary's request and she knew it. That is why she could say to the attendants with confidence (vs 5) "Whatsoever he saith unto you, do it."
"what have I to do with thee?" is a Jewish idom of deferment as in Mk 5:6-7
"But when he saw Jesus afar off, he ran and worshipped him, And cried with a loud voice, and said, What have I to do with thee, Jesus, thou Son of the most high God?"
And Mk 1:23-24
"And there was in their synagogue a man with an unclean spirit; and he cried out, Saying, Let us alone; what have we to do with thee, thou Jesus of Nazareth?"
The unclean spirits were not correcting or reproving Jesus but deferring to him.
You haven't answered this poiint that I made.
You say:
“This impressed on her that she was sinful, and with the bearing of children, sin was being passed on to her sons and daughters, who in turn, passed sin onto their descendants.”
If sin was passed on to her sons and daughters did Mary pass sin on to her son?
If not why not? Could it be because Mary was immaculately conceived and therefore could not pass sin onto Jesus?
I agree, I can see you are taking no notice of what I say.Guestman said:There is no need to continue this discussion with you.
Our minds are being renewed in the spirit, but our bodies aren't; they are dying. They are dying because they are corrupt. Mary's body was corrupted by sin; she died. Corruption cannot inherit incorruption. That is why we will receive new, uncorrupted bodies.Mungo said:Where does the Bible say that the fallen nature we receive from Adam is unrepairable? “with God all things are possible." (Mt 19:26)
Adam’s nature wasn’t changed to a different one when he disobeyed God but it was wounded. He lost absolute control of his will over his desires and ruptured his relationship with God.
“he saved us, not because of deeds done by us in righteousness, but in virtue of his own mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewal in the Holy Spirit” (Ti 3:5)
We are renewed, made as new. We do not get a brand new nature but our old one is renewed, although there is still concupiscence, because of which we still struggle as Paul did:
"For I do not do the good I want, but the evil I do not want is what I do. Now if I do what I do not want, it is no longer I that do it, but sin which dwells within me. So I find it to be a law that when I want to do right, evil lies close at hand. For I delight in the law of God, in my inmost self, but I see in my members another law at war with the law of my mind and making me captive to the law of sin which dwells in my members." (Rom 7:19-23).