If The Kingdom isn't here yet then what is JESUS CHRIST a King of?

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Davy

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Was The Promise Land Abraham had Faith in ...JESUS' Kingdom that we have access to today via being Reborn?

By what you're saying there, it means you AGREE... today is not His Kingdom on earth, because all a believing Christian need do is look at today's holy land with all the unbelievers of Israel in majority there, many of them wanting to build another temple just to start up old covenant worship again.

Those lands were promised to Abraham and his seed, and per God's prophets that will include the believing Gentiles. When the unbelievers there are rooted out by Jesus, their being the goats on the left hand, then that land will belong to Him and His followers, and that... will be proof that His literal Kingdom has come, on earth. Until then we only have His spiritual Kingdom with us today.
 

pittsburghjoe

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By what you're saying there, it means you AGREE... today is not His Kingdom on earth, because all a believing Christian need do is look at today's holy land with all the unbelievers of Israel in majority there, many of them wanting to build another temple just to start up old covenant worship again.

Those lands were promised to Abraham and his seed, and per God's prophets that will include the believing Gentiles. When the unbelievers there are rooted out by Jesus, their being the goats on the left hand, then that land will belong to Him and His followers, and that... will be proof that His literal Kingdom has come, on earth. Until then we only have His spiritual Kingdom with us today.

JESUS gave us The Way to The Kingdom. He told us there would be tares in it:

Matthew 13:24-30

Another parable put he forth unto them, saying, The kingdom of heaven is likened unto a man which sowed good seed in his field:

25 But while men slept, his enemy came and sowed tares among the wheat, and went his way.


Ephesians 1:20-23

Which he wrought in Christ, when he raised him from the dead, and set him at his own right hand in the heavenly places,

Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come:

And hath put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church,

Which is his body, the fulness of him that filleth all in all.
 

Davy

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JESUS gave us The Way to The Kingdom. He told us there would be tares in it:

Matthew 13:24-30

Another parable put he forth unto them, saying, The kingdom of heaven is likened unto a man which sowed good seed in his field:

25 But while men slept, his enemy came and sowed tares among the wheat, and went his way.


Ephesians 1:20-23

Which he wrought in Christ, when he raised him from the dead, and set him at his own right hand in the heavenly places,

Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come:

And hath put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church,

Which is his body, the fulness of him that filleth all in all.

Sorry, but the Heavenly Places right now are still in Heaven with God's Abode, and not here on earth literally, except 'within' those who believe on Jesus Christ. Yet there is much Bible prophecy to show His LITERAL KINGDOM is going to be established here ON EARTH over ALL nations, and that has NOT happened yet today.

If you believe the Kingdom is here on earth already fulfilled 'literally', then it means you side with the deceived on the plans for a "one world government", also called a "New World Order". Those men are deceived by the occult fraternities that follow Lucifer, for Lucifer's servants on earth today are preparing all nations on earth today for his coming that happens first, and he will be the "man of sin" Apostle Paul warned of, coming to Jerusalem to play God with the majority of the world believing it (Revelation 13:4-8). That is who you show you're beliefs are pointing towards with your false 'kingdom here now' theories.
 

pittsburghjoe

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Sorry, but the Heavenly Places right now are still in Heaven with God's Abode, and not here on earth literally, except 'within' those who believe on Jesus Christ. Yet there is much Bible prophecy to show His LITERAL KINGDOM is going to be established here ON EARTH over ALL nations, and that has NOT happened yet today.

If you believe the Kingdom is here on earth already fulfilled 'literally', then it means you side with the deceived on the plans for a "one world government", also called a "New World Order". Those men are deceived by the occult fraternities that follow Lucifer, for Lucifer's servants on earth today are preparing all nations on earth today for his coming that happens first, and he will be the "man of sin" Apostle Paul warned of, coming to Jerusalem to play God with the majority of the world believing it (Revelation 13:4-8). That is who you show you're beliefs are pointing towards with your false 'kingdom here now' theories.

What i believe is that you are avoiding giving up sin because you think the Kingdom isn't now.
 

APAK

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The King James Bible has several thousand errors, such as Isaiah 61:8, that reads according to the King James Bible: "For I the Lord love judgment, I hate robbery for burnt offering (which does NOT make any sense); and I will direct their work in truth, and I will make an everlasting covenant with them."

The King James Bible renders the Hebrew word olah as "burnt offering" here (which is just one of its meanings), but which is not correct in this application, for the word olah can also mean "unrighteousness", for it is the active participle of the Hebrew word alah, that has " great variety of senses" (Strong's Exhaustive Concordance) that can mean "invocation of woe upon oneself ", as the Bible Cyclopedia says, bringing on "unrighteousness". The New World Translation reads more accurately at Isaiah 61:8: "For I, Jehovah, love justice; I hate robbery and unrighteousness. I will faithfully give them their wages, and I will make an everlasting covenant with them."

The American Standard Version reads of Isaiah 61:8: "For I, Jehovah, love justice, I hate robbery with iniquity; and I will give them their recompense in truth, and I will make an everlasting covenant with them". Darby's Bible reads: "For I , Jehovah, love judgment, I hate robbery with wrong; and I will give their recompense in truth, and I will make an everlasting covenant with them."

Many Bible translators do not dig deeper to grasp the context that helps to provide an accurate meaning of a word (or phrase), but rather just renders a Hebrew or Greek word literally, which can throw a person off considerably in accurately understanding the Bible, so much so, that when they want to go to California, they end up in New York.

For example, at 1 Samuel 25:34, the King James Bible reads of David saying to Nabal's wife Abigail when she came to meet him in order to stop him from shedding innocent blood, that because of Nabal's cold, loveless response to his men asking for some provisions for protecting his flock, so that David became angry and said to her, that if you "hadst hasted and come to meet me, surely there had not been left unto Nabal by the morning light any that pisseth against a wall."

What does the phrase of "any that pisseth against a wall" mean ? The New World Translation clears this up by saying that "by morning there would not have remained a single male belonging to Nabal." Another example of where the King James Bible "misses the mark" is at Genesis 13:1-3, that has Abraham going "south" from Egypt (where he would arrive in Ethiopia) and yet still ending up at Bethel, that is north of Egypt, NOT south, failing to realize that the Hebrew word Negeb here is not a compass direction meaning "south", but the region just below the Dead Sea called "the Negeb."

Hence, the King James Bible translators failed to differentiate between the compass direction and geographical location. So, a person who wants to find "the truth", needs a Bible that is accurate, and the New World Translation fits this desire.

Yes, well said...and not just the KJV translation. Some did later revise the KJV translations to some degree, and of other translators with these kinds of glaring errors, although not nearly enough in my estimation. I go to the extreme and I'm very conservative in this area; and so it should be so to get the best reading and most accurate rendering as you pointed out, by really understand and viewing the context.

For example, one of my pet peeves, I wish practically every place the word 'gentile' or even 'heathen' is listed in scripture, it is replaced by the better translations such as: foreigner, Greek, other tribe(s) other nation(s), non-Jew etc. There is NOT one reason why this Latinized word gentile or gentiles, derived for the Roman meaning for a non-Roman citizen, an outsider or foreigner, of another nation, and then made deliberately into a new meaning soon afterwards to divide today, should be in the Bible. And yes, all this has done by leaving it in, is to use it as a battering ram, used as a wedge, a political and religious divide, to keep pandering to the phony Khazarian and many Zionist-derived fake Jews today 'conceived between 700-900 AD. And then ignorant Christians go around today and say in a proud tone and voice, 'well I'm a gentile and they are Jews.' How sick! Are Christians still foreigners to God today, and of course not as Roman citizens, and these self-styled fake Jews are not? As if they are the chosen ones that will have special privileges in the future to salvation at least!! Christ died for the same reasons, for All mankind.

Don't they know that these fake Jews are laughing at all Christians. The word was meant to mean a foreigner(s) or of other lands or peoples or one that did not live and were not of the culture of a Hebrews or Israelites. Even the Hebrews were called goy/goyim or foreigner(s) at times. The KJV still has the word 'gentile' for the Hebrews who just landed out of the Ark (Gen 10:5). Go figure! This is all gone, dead and buried today. I guess the modern typical Christian never got the memo. Get rid of this egregious error in scripture, now!

Even the word 'Jew' in the Bible should be examined more closely. Many times the better word is Judahite or even Judean....
the list goes on.....
Some translations today are trying to fix these gross and deliberate prejudicial errors of the past....not enough though.

Words left in the Bible that still cause or create demeaning prejudicial and unfair judgments like 'Jew' or 'Gentile' or 'heathens' should be gone or changed to a non-judgmental form. Is only causes unfounded division.

And 'Gentile' is also not a correct translation for 'goy'....for another discussion.

Genesis 10:5
(Bishops) Of these were the Iles of the gentiles deuided in their landes, euery one after his tongue, and after his kinrede, in their nations.
(Brenton) From these were the islands of the Gentiles divided in their land, each according to his tongue, in their tribes and in their nations.
(Darby) By these were divided the islands of the Gentiles in their lands, every one according to his tongue and their families in their nations.
(Geneva) Of these were the yles of the Gentiles deuided in their landes, euery man after his tongue, and after their families in their nations.
every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations.
(JUB) By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands, each one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations.
(KJV) By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations.
(KJV+) By theseH4480 H428 were the islesH339 of the GentilesH1471 dividedH6504 in their lands;H776 every oneH376 after his tongue,H3956 after their families,H4940 in their nations.H1471
(KJV-BRG) By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations.
(Latin) ab his divisae sunt insulae gentium in regionibus suis unusquisque secundum linguam et familias in nationibus suis
(Webster) By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations.

-----------well I got that sermon out in the open again--------------------
 
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Oseas

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Revelation 20:1-6 Isnt A Millennial Kingdom On This Earth
Can you find the things claimed by those teaching a Literal 1,000 year Millennial Kingdom On This Earth in Revelation 20:1-6 below?

What matters most is not in what kind of place the kingdom of God will be established, but to inherit the kingdom of God that will be established by the Most High and Almighty GOD, whose Kingdom will ruled by JESUS.

JESUS said: Father, I will that they also, whom thou hast given me, be with me where I am; that they may behold my glory, which thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world. John 17:v.24 - See, THIS IS WHAT MATERS, TO BE WITH JESUS, NO MATERS THE PLACE, of course -.

JESUS took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.- Glory to JESUS.
But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that Day -this Day arrived- when I drink it new with you in my Father's kingdom.


JESUS said: 5 Blessed are the meek: for they shall inherit the earth.Matt.5:v.5

JESUS revealed to John, a nd John to the churches: - Revelation 1:v.4 to 8:
4 John to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace be unto you, and peace, from Him which is, and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits which are before His throne;

5 And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the Prince of the kings of the earth. Unto Him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in His own blood,

6 And hath made us kings and priests unto GOD and His Father; to Him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.

7 Behold, He cometh with clouds;(clouds? it is associated with Psalm 97:v.2) and every eye shall see Him, and they also which pierced Him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of Him. Even so, Amen.

8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

Revelation 5:v.10 - And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth.
JESUS said: 5 Blessed are the meek: for they shall inherit the earth.Matt.5:v.5


8 But the fearful(COWARDS), and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, AND ALL LIARS, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death.
 

Guestman

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If the KJV has "thousands of errors", then all modern Bible versions based on Wescott and Hort's Greek New Testament translation have tens of thousand of errors, because of being based on corrupt Greek texts that leave out much of The New Testament that the KJV does not.

The King James Bible of 1611 C.E. is based on Greek manuscripts no earlier than the 12th century C.E., and the Christian Greek Scriptures of the King James Bible is based on Paris printer and editor Robert Estienne or "Stephanus" "Received Text" of 1550 C.E. (who introduced a system of chapters and verses into his Greek-Latin text of 1551 C.E., introducing them in both the Hebrew and Greek scriptures in his French Bible of 1553 C.E.), that of itself was based mainly on the Dutch scholar Desiderius Erasmus master Greek "New Testament", with his first edition being printed in Basel, Switzerland in 1516, one year before the Protestant Reformation started in Germany. The Hebrew Scriptures (commonly but inaccurately called "the Old Testament") of the King James Bible is based on about 90 percent of William Tyndale's Bible translation.(William Tyndale 1492-1536 C.E.)

The King James Bible, beside its archaic English with it's "thees" and "thous", has numerous errors, and spurious additions, such as at Acts 7:59, whereby the words "upon God" were added in order to give support for the "Holy Trinity", to make people think that Jesus is God, but which they are not found in the oldest Greek manuscripts.

And at 1 Timothy 3:16, it does not read: "God was manifest in the flesh" as the King James Bible says, but that "Indeed, the sacred secret (whereby Jesus is the central figure of the "mysteries of the Kingdom", Matt 13:11) of this godly devotion is admittedly great: ‘He (or Jesus) was made manifest in flesh, was declared righteous in spirit", for the Greek word there was not theos meaning "God", but rather the Greek word hos that means "who", so that it accurately reads: "Who (or he) was made manifest in the flesh", whereby Jesus was the subject under consideration, who is the "mediator between God and men........who gave himself a corresponding ransom for all".(1 Tim 2:5, 6; New World Translation; Note: the King James Bible reads "ransom", not "corresponding ransom", in which Paul used the Greek word antilytron, not just lytron that Jesus used at Matthew 20:28, meaning "ransom")

And at Acts 3:13, 26, the King James Bible reads "Son", but which the Greek word there is not huios, meaning "son", but rather the Greek word pais, that literally means "boy", but in certain application means "servant", and of which the King James Bible properly renders it as "servant" at Matthew 12:18 (which is a direct quotation from Isaiah 42:1), but not at Acts 3:13, 26, trying to make readers not see Jesus as a "servant" if they believe that he part of the "Holy Trinity", coequal, pushing support for the "Godhead".

And the King James Bible wrongly renders three Greek words as "Godhead" (a word that did not exist until about the 12th century C.E.), being theios at Acts 17:29, that means "godlike" or "divine", theiotes at Romans 1:20, that means "divinity", and theotetos at Colossians 2:9, that also means "divinity" or "deity".

The etymology of "Godhead" is: "c. 1200, "divine nature, deity, divinity," from god + Middle English -hede (see -head). Along with maidenhead, the sole survival of this form of the suffix. Old English had godhad "divine nature." Parallel form godhood is from early 13c., now chiefly restricted to "state or condition of being a god."(website etymonline dot com)

And the King James Bible has the spurious addition at 1 John 5:7, 8, adding the words: "in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost; and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth." It accurately reads: "For there are three witness bearers: the spirit and the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement."(New World Translation)

I could go on, but this is sufficient for now, to show some of the inaccuracies and spurious additions of the King James Bible, though revered by many for hundreds of years.
 
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Davy

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"First of all, the Textus Receptus was the Bible of early Eastern Christianity. Later it was adopted as the official text of the Greek Catholic Church. There were local reasons which contributed to this result. But, probably, far greater reasons will be found in the fact that the Received Text had authority enough to become, either in itself or by its translation, the Bible of the great Syrian Church; of the Waldensian Church of northern Italy; of the Gallic Church in southern France; and of the Celtic Church in Scotland and Ireland; as well as the official Bible of the Greek Catholic Church.
All these churches, some earlier, some later, were in opposition to the Church of Rome and at a time when the Received Text and these Bibles of the Constantine type were rivals. They, as represented in their descendants, are rivals to this day. The Church of Rome built on the Eusebio-Origen type of Bible; these others built on the Received Text. Therefore, because they themselves believed that the Received Text was the true apostolic Bible, and further, because the Church of Rome arrogated to itself the power to choose a Bible which bore the marks of systematic depravation, we have the testimony of these five churches to the authenticity and the apostolicity of the Received Text."(David Otter Fuller)

  • Textus Receptus is based on the vast majority (90%) of the 5000+ Greek manuscripts in existence. That is why it is also called the Majority Text.
  • Textus Receptus is not mutilated with deletions, additions and amendments, as is the Minority Text.
  • Textus Receptus agrees with the earliest versions of the Bible: Peshitta (AD150) Old Latin Vulgate (AD157), the Italic Bible (AD157) etc. These Bibles were produced some 200 years before the minority Egyptian codices favoured by the Roman Church. Remember this vital point.
  • Textus Receptus agrees with the vast majority of the 86,000+ citations from scripture by the early church fathers.
  • Textus Receptus is untainted with Egyptian philosophy and unbelief.
  • Textus Receptus strongly upholds the fundamental doctrines of the Christian faith: the creation account in Genesis, the divinity of Jesus Christ, the virgin birth, his miracles, his bodily resurrection and literal return.
  • Textus Receptus was - and still is - the enemy of the Roman Church. This is an important fact to bear in mind.
 

charity

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If JESUS is going to go and prepare a place for us, why would The Kingdom remain here?
John 14:2-3
In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.
And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.​

People that overcome ... doesn't that mean now?
Revelation 3:12
Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.​

Is the Judgment by JESUS to end Jerusalem tell us that He is Reigning over The House of Jacob from Mount Zion (GOD'S Kingdom) as a King (Luke 19:41-44)? "and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; because thou knewest not the time of thy visitation."

If the Reborn are Kingdom Ambassadors, why are we waiting for a physical Kingdom like the Jews are? They are waiting for a Messianic Age, are we also or is LORD JESUS CHRIST Reigning right now?

Check out “amillennial eschatology”. What do people think is going on when they become Reborn? i’ll tell you, He becomes our KING.

Jews still haven’t figured out that GOD’S Kingdom isn’t physical. You become Reborn to enter it. You become Reborn for a Relationship with GOD.

What Anointed King matches to the King in Psalm 72? What Jewish King asks for prayers continually besides the Ultimate King (Psa 72:15)? "prayer also shall be made for him continually; and daily shall he be praised."
'The former treatise have I made, O Theophilus,
of all that Jesus began both to do and teach,
Until the day in which He was taken up,
after that He through the Holy Ghost
had given commandments unto the apostles whom He had chosen:
To whom also He shewed Himself alive after His passion by many infallible proofs,
being seen of them forty days,
and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God: ... '

(Act 1:1-3)

Hello @pittsburghjoe,

After 40 days upon the earth following His resurrection, during which He taught His disciples concerning the Kingdom of God, the Lord is approached by certain of His disciples and asked a question:-

'When they therefore were come together,
they asked of Him, saying,
.. "Lord, wilt Thou
.... at this time
...... restore again
........ the kingdom to Israel?"'

(Act 1:6)

* After having had 40 days of teaching by the best teacher of all time, they should know something of what the Kingdom of God was, so their words here should be considered carefully, and not dismissed as a mistake on their part, as some have done.
This question reveals that it is the Lord Himself that they expect to restore 'again' the Kingdom: that it is to Israel that it will be restored; and that the only thing they did not know was the time in which it was to take place.

* The Scriptures have much to tell us of the Kingdom, and it's teaching is broad, but the position of Israel in relation to it must never be denied. For their land is 'Emmanuel's land'; and their great City, 'the city of the great King'; and their People will once again be called, 'My People'.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
 
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Truth7t7

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The King James Bible of 1611 C.E. is based on Greek manuscripts no earlier than the 12th century C.E., and the Christian Greek Scriptures of the King James Bible is based on Paris printer and editor Robert Estienne or "Stephanus" "Received Text" of 1550 C.E. (who introduced a system of chapters and verses into his Greek-Latin text of 1551 C.E., introducing them in both the Hebrew and Greek scriptures in his French Bible of 1553 C.E.), that of itself was based mainly on the Dutch scholar Desiderius Erasmus master Greek "New Testament", with his first edition being printed in Basel, Switzerland in 1516, one year before the Protestant Reformation started in Germany. The Hebrew Scriptures (commonly but inaccurately called "the Old Testament") of the King James Bible is based on about 90 percent of William Tyndale's Bible translation.(William Tyndale 1492-1536 C.E.)

The King James Bible, beside its archaic English with it's "thees" and "thous", has numerous errors, and spurious additions, such as at Acts 7:59, whereby the words "upon God" were added in order to give support for the "Holy Trinity", to make people think that Jesus is God, but which they are not found in the oldest Greek manuscripts.

And at 1 Timothy 3:16, it does not read: "God was manifest in the flesh" as the King James Bible says, but that "Indeed, the sacred secret (whereby Jesus is the central figure of the "mysteries of the Kingdom", Matt 13:11) of this godly devotion is admittedly great: ‘He (or Jesus) was made manifest in flesh, was declared righteous in spirit", for the Greek word there was not theos meaning "God", but rather the Greek word hos that means "who", so that it accurately reads: "Who (or he) was made manifest in the flesh", whereby Jesus was the subject under consideration, who is the "mediator between God and men........who gave himself a corresponding ransom for all".(1 Tim 2:5, 6; New World Translation; Note: the King James Bible reads "ransom", not "corresponding ransom", in which Paul used the Greek word antilytron, not just lytron that Jesus used at Matthew 20:28, meaning "ransom")

And at Acts 3:13, 26, the King James Bible reads "Son", but which the Greek word there is not huios, meaning "son", but rather the Greek word pais, that literally means "boy", but in certain application means "servant", and of which the King James Bible properly renders it as "servant" at Matthew 12:18 (which is a direct quotation from Isaiah 42:1), but not at Acts 3:13, 26, trying to make readers not see Jesus as a "servant" if they believe that he part of the "Holy Trinity", coequal, pushing support for the "Godhead".

And the King James Bible wrongly renders three Greek words as "Godhead" (a word that did not exist until about the 12th century C.E.), being theios at Acts 17:29, that means "godlike" or "divine", theiotes at Romans 1:20, that means "divinity", and theotetos at Colossians 2:9, that also means "divinity" or "deity".

The etymology of "Godhead" is: "c. 1200, "divine nature, deity, divinity," from god + Middle English -hede (see -head). Along with maidenhead, the sole survival of this form of the suffix. Old English had godhad "divine nature." Parallel form godhood is from early 13c., now chiefly restricted to "state or condition of being a god."(website etymonline dot com)

And the King James Bible has the spurious addition at 1 John 5:7, 8, adding the words: "in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost; and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth." It accurately reads: "For there are three witness bearers: the spirit and the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement."(New World Translation)

I could go on, but this is sufficient for now, to show some of the inaccuracies and spurious additions of the King James Bible, though revered by many for hundreds of years.
I noticed you use (CE, Common Era) as opposed to (AD, Ano Domini) "The Year Of Our Lord"?

Do you deny Jesus Christ as being God Messiah of the world?
 

Guestman

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I noticed you use (CE, Common Era) as opposed to (AD, Ano Domini) "The Year Of Our Lord"?

Do you deny Jesus Christ as being God Messiah of the world?

The letters C.E. stand for "Common Era" and is the equivalent of AD or anno Domni, which means "in the year of our Lord" in Latin. Simply put, B.C.E. (Before our Common Era) is a secular version of BC (before Christ) or C.E., from the year Christ was seen as being born.

According to the website TimeandDate, that deals with time of all sorts, either designation is acceptable by the international standard for calendar dates, although scientific circles are more prone to using the B.C.E./C.E. format. And the use of B.C.E./C.E. format has been found on manuscripts dating as far back as 1708 C.E.

No, I do not deny Jesus as being God's Messiah or "anointed one", but see him as the central figure in the outworking of Jehovah God's purpose, for after the Samaritan woman at the well near Sychar said to Jesus, that "I know that Mes·siʹah is coming, who is called Christ. Whenever that one comes, he will declare all things to us openly", Jesus replies: "I am he, the one speaking to you."(John 4:25, 26)

Jesus knew who he was, being fully aware of the many prophesies that he would fulfill, from the first prophecy at Genesis 3:15, in which "the woman" with her "offspring" is spoken of (and whereby this "woman" is again seen at Isaiah 54, 60, 62, 66, John 6:45, Gal.4:27, and Revelation 12) and of which Jesus is one of her "offspring", to Deuteronomy 18:15 of him being the man that would be a prophet like Moses that came from within the Israelites (see also Acts 3:23), to Isaiah 53 as the one who would "carry our sicknesses" (Isa 53:4), to Jesus being "the chief cornerstone" of God's Kingdom at Isaiah 28:16 (and which Jesus quoted at Matthew 21:42, 43).

Jesus knew that he was "the last Adam" (1 Cor 15:45), being a perfect man that would replace the original perfect Adam who failed a simple test (Gen 3:1-6), who lost the hope of him and his offspring living forever on a paradise earth.(Gen 1:28) Jesus knew that would have to die as a perfect man, not failing his severe testing in the least, in order to provide the critical ransom for obedient mankind, buying back what Adam lost.(Matt 20:28)

So, instead of the original Adam being our father, Jesus takes his place as the one who will give everlasting life to those who exercise faith in him, becoming their "Eternal Father" (see Isa 9:6), serving as Jehovah God's "Chief Agent and Perfecter of our faith".(Heb 12:2; John 6:40)
 
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Truth7t7

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The letters C.E. stand for "Common Era" and is the equivalent of AD or anno Domni, which means "in the year of our Lord" in Latin. Simply put, B.C.E. (Before our Common Era) is a secular version of BC (before Christ) or C.E., from the year Christ was seen as being born.

According to the website TimeandDate, that deals with time of all sorts, either designation is acceptable by the international standard for calendar dates, although scientific circles are more prone to using the B.C.E./C.E. format. And the use of B.C.E./C.E. format has been found on manuscripts dating as far back as 1708 C.E.

No, I do not deny Jesus as being God's Messiah or "anointed one", but see him as the central figure in the outworking of Jehovah God's purpose, for after the Samaritan woman at the well near Sychar said to Jesus, that "I know that Mes·siʹah is coming, who is called Christ. Whenever that one comes, he will declare all things to us openly", Jesus replies: "I am he, the one speaking to you."(John 4:25, 26)

Jesus knew who he was, being fully aware of the many prophesies that he would fulfill, from the first prophecy at Genesis 3:15, in which "the woman" with her "offspring" is spoken of (and whereby this "woman" is again seen at Isaiah 54, 60, 62, 66, John 6:45, Gal.4:27, and Revelation 12) and of which Jesus is one of her "offspring", to Deuteronomy 18:15 of him being the man that would be a prophet like Moses that came from within the Israelites (see also Acts 3:23), to Isaiah 53 as the one who would "carry our sicknesses" (Isa 53:4), to Jesus being "the chief cornerstone" of God's Kingdom at Isaiah 28:16 (and which Jesus quoted at Matthew 21:42, 43).

Jesus knew that he was "the last Adam" (1 Cor 15:45), being a perfect man that would replace the original perfect Adam who failed a simple test (Gen 3:1-6), who lost the hope of him and his offspring living forever on a paradise earth.(Gen 1:28) Jesus knew that would have to die as a perfect man, not failing his severe testing in the least, in order to provide the critical ransom for obedient mankind, buying back what Adam lost.(Matt 20:28)

So, instead of the original Adam being our father, Jesus takes his place as the one who will give everlasting life to those who exercise faith in him, becoming their "Eternal Father" (see Isa 9:6), serving as Jehovah God's "Chief Agent and Perfecter of our faith".(Heb 12:2; John 6:40)
Do you believe Jesus Christ (The Word) is God?

John 1:1-3KJV
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
2 The same was in the beginning with God.
3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
 

Timtofly

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The teaching that " the sons of God" are angeles, is part of the Chuck Missler hoax in the Nephilim

Those that presented themselves before God were righteous believers on earth, satan was on earth amongst these believers, no Angel's are present other than satan

Job 1:6-7KJV
6 Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord, and Satan came also among them.
7 And the Lord said unto Satan, Whence
comest thou? Then Satan answered the Lord, and said, From going to and fro in the earth, and from walking up and down in it.

All saved believers are sons of God

John 1:12KJV
12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:

Romans 8:14KJV
14 For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.
Is Job prior to Noah's Flood?

The sons of God on earth were all corrupted and destroyed on earth at the Flood. Any sons of God in council after the Flood, was in heaven. They may have still been judges over earth's kingdoms, but God turned His focus on Abraham and called the Hebrews out as representative instead of a council called the sons of God. They are mentioned in Job, but never on earth after Abraham.

Job was either before the Flood, or before Abraham. There was not a council on earth after Abraham. Even Shem the priest of Salem was a son of Noah, not a son of God. He was the only representative of God we are informed of, that would have been part of some earthly council.

The term sons of God in the NT relates to the restoration of Adam's fallen image. The original human image was the one created on the 6th Day. Now many think that humans survived the Flood outside of the Ark, because it was only local. So sons of God and wicked humanity still lived on earth after the Flood. That is not the point God made. God declared only 8 humans survived and repopulated the earth. That was the judgment of water.

Today the earth is again about to go extinct when it comes to Adam's flesh and blood. No living survivors in an ark through the fire of the Second Coming. All flesh will physically die, and only the remnant will be resurrected. No ark this time, only a physical resurrection to the restored incorruptible physical body of a son of God. Those resurrected in Revelation 20:4 will be allowed 1000 years to repopulate the earth.
 

Truth7t7

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Is Job prior to Noah's Flood?

The sons of God on earth were all corrupted and destroyed on earth at the Flood. Any sons of God in council after the Flood, was in heaven. They may have still been judges over earth's kingdoms, but God turned His focus on Abraham and called the Hebrews out as representative instead of a council called the sons of God. They are mentioned in Job, but never on earth after Abraham.

Job was either before the Flood, or before Abraham. There was not a council on earth after Abraham. Even Shem the priest of Salem was a son of Noah, not a son of God. He was the only representative of God we are informed of, that would have been part of some earthly council.

The term sons of God in the NT relates to the restoration of Adam's fallen image. The original human image was the one created on the 6th Day. Now many think that humans survived the Flood outside of the Ark, because it was only local. So sons of God and wicked humanity still lived on earth after the Flood. That is not the point God made. God declared only 8 humans survived and repopulated the earth. That was the judgment of water.

Today the earth is again about to go extinct when it comes to Adam's flesh and blood. No living survivors in an ark through the fire of the Second Coming. All flesh will physically die, and only the remnant will be resurrected. No ark this time, only a physical resurrection to the restored incorruptible physical body of a son of God. Those resurrected in Revelation 20:4 will be allowed 1000 years to repopulate the earth.
The date of Job's life and genealogy is unknown, scholars speculate to this day
 
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pittsburghjoe

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Yes, well said...and not just the KJV translation. Some did later revise the KJV translations to some degree, and of other translators with these kinds of glaring errors, although not nearly enough in my estimation. I go to the extreme and I'm very conservative in this area; and so it should be so to get the best reading and most accurate rendering as you pointed out, by really understand and viewing the context.

For example, one of my pet peeves, I wish practically every place the word 'gentile' or even 'heathen' is listed in scripture, it is replaced by the better translations such as: foreigner, Greek, other tribe(s) other nation(s), non-Jew etc. There is NOT one reason why this Latinized word gentile or gentiles, derived for the Roman meaning for a non-Roman citizen, an outsider or foreigner, of another nation, and then made deliberately into a new meaning soon afterwards to divide today, should be in the Bible. And yes, all this has done by leaving it in, is to use it as a battering ram, used as a wedge, a political and religious divide, to keep pandering to the phony Khazarian and many Zionist-derived fake Jews today 'conceived between 700-900 AD. And then ignorant Christians go around today and say in a proud tone and voice, 'well I'm a gentile and they are Jews.' How sick! Are Christians still foreigners to God today, and of course not as Roman citizens, and these self-styled fake Jews are not? As if they are the chosen ones that will have special privileges in the future to salvation at least!! Christ died for the same reasons, for All mankind.

Don't they know that these fake Jews are laughing at all Christians. The word was meant to mean a foreigner(s) or of other lands or peoples or one that did not live and were not of the culture of a Hebrews or Israelites. Even the Hebrews were called goy/goyim or foreigner(s) at times. The KJV still has the word 'gentile' for the Hebrews who just landed out of the Ark (Gen 10:5). Go figure! This is all gone, dead and buried today. I guess the modern typical Christian never got the memo. Get rid of this egregious error in scripture, now!

Even the word 'Jew' in the Bible should be examined more closely. Many times the better word is Judahite or even Judean....
the list goes on.....
Some translations today are trying to fix these gross and deliberate prejudicial errors of the past....not enough though.

Words left in the Bible that still cause or create demeaning prejudicial and unfair judgments like 'Jew' or 'Gentile' or 'heathens' should be gone or changed to a non-judgmental form. Is only causes unfounded division.

And 'Gentile' is also not a correct translation for 'goy'....for another discussion.

Genesis 10:5
(Bishops) Of these were the Iles of the gentiles deuided in their landes, euery one after his tongue, and after his kinrede, in their nations.
(Brenton) From these were the islands of the Gentiles divided in their land, each according to his tongue, in their tribes and in their nations.
(Darby) By these were divided the islands of the Gentiles in their lands, every one according to his tongue and their families in their nations.
(Geneva) Of these were the yles of the Gentiles deuided in their landes, euery man after his tongue, and after their families in their nations.
every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations.
(JUB) By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands, each one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations.
(KJV) By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations.
(KJV+) By theseH4480 H428 were the islesH339 of the GentilesH1471 dividedH6504 in their lands;H776 every oneH376 after his tongue,H3956 after their families,H4940 in their nations.H1471
(KJV-BRG) By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations.
(Latin) ab his divisae sunt insulae gentium in regionibus suis unusquisque secundum linguam et familias in nationibus suis
(Webster) By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations.

-----------well I got that sermon out in the open again--------------------

Listen to 10min of this starting at 22min
i think you will find it interesting:
 

APAK

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Listen to 10min of this starting at 22min
i think you will find it interesting:
I've already been on board with his thinking for at least a few years now. He's on track in my book, and I'm also walking this similar track forward.

Great clip PJ...thanks and bless you for it....I have take notes already...keep this info coming
 

Taken

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If The Kingdom isn't here yet then what is JESUS CHRIST a King of?
OP ^

* His “Kingdom” IS here, (unseen) “IN the hearts” of those who belong to Him.

*The “Manifestation” (able to be seen) of the Kingdom of Jesus, will be (future) VISIBLE, to its “saints occupants”....and remaining mortals during Jesus’ 1,000 year reign.

* The “Manifestation” (able to be seen) of the Kingdom of God, will be (future) VISIBLE, on Earth, to all of its “saint occupants”.....which shall be the “only” mankind of occupants remaining On Earth. (No mortals)

Patience...Knowing is one thing...Seeing is another thing.

Glory to God,
Taken
 

charity

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'Pilate answered,
"Am I a Jew? Thine own nation
and the chief priests have delivered Thee unto me:
what hast Thou done?"
Jesus answered,
"My kingdom is not of this world:
if My kingdom were of this world,
then would my servants fight,
that I should not be delivered to the Jews:
but now is My kingdom not from hence".'
(John 18:35-36)

'Pilate therefore said unto Him, "Art thou a king then?"
Jesus answered, "Thou sayest that I am a king.
To this end was I born, and for this cause came I into the world,
that I should bear witness unto the truth.
Every one that is of the truth heareth My voice."
Pilate saith unto Him, What is truth?
And when he had said this, he went out again unto the Jews,
and saith unto them, "I find in Him no fault at all."
(John 18:35-38)

'Ye are they (the twelve) which have continued with Me in My temptations (ie., trials).
And I appoint unto you a kingdom, as My Father hath appointed unto Me;
That ye may eat and drink at My table in My kingdom,
and sit on thrones judging the twelve tribes of Israel.'
(Luke 22:28)

Giving thanks unto the Father,
which hath made us meet
to be partakers of the inheritance of the saints in light:
Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness,
and hath translated us into the kingdom of His dear Son: ('the Son of His love')
In whom we have redemption through His blood,
even the forgiveness of sins:... '
(Colossians 1:12-13)

'And the seventh angel sounded;
and there were great voices in heaven, saying,
" The kingdoms of this world are become
the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ;
and He shall reign for ever and ever."

(Rev 11:15)

Hello there,

At present Christ Jesus our risen Lord is seated at God's right hand, where He intercedes for us, as our Advocate in a Priestly role.

When the Lord Jesus said to the Pharisees, in Luke 17:21b:- '... ... for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you.' He was referring to the fact that the kingdom was indeed 'within' or 'among' them, for He, their King, was there in their midst : there cannot be a kingdom without the presence of a King.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris