Spiritual Israelite
Well-Known Member
Not sealed in the way you think. You are the one who thinks that him being bound has to do with him being completely incapacitated, not me. I believe his binding relates to passages like these:Let me get this straight.
Christ dies and rises and when he ascends, he is reigning.
Now that he left, the Gospel is in its purest form at least for the next 100 years. That same hundred years and whatever after, Satan is sealed.
Hebrews 2:14 Since the children have flesh and blood, he too shared in their humanity so that by his death he might break the power of him who holds the power of death—that is, the devil— 15 and free those who all their lives were held in slavery by their fear of death.
1 John 3:8 The one who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil’s work.
Acts 26:15 “Then I asked, ‘Who are you, Lord?’ “ ‘I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting,’ the Lord replied. 16 ‘Now get up and stand on your feet. I have appeared to you to appoint you as a servant and as a witness of what you have seen and will see of me. 17 I will rescue you from your own people and from the Gentiles. I am sending you to them 18 to open their eyes and turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, so that they may receive forgiveness of sins and a place among those who are sanctified by faith in me.’
Yes, because his binding has nothing to do with his ability to persecute people. Where does it say he would be bound from doing that? Nowhere. It says he would be bound from deceiving people which I don't see as referring to his general ability to deceive, but rather to his ability to keep the world in spiritual darkness the way he was able to do in Old Testament times before Christ came to "break the power of him who holds the power of death—that is, the devil— 15 and free those who all their lives were held in slavery by their fear of death".So you're telling, all the persecution the early church had: the prison, the beatings, floggings, decapitations, crucifying, fed to animals, tarred and burned alive was during the time Satan is sealed?
Again, his binding is not about his general ability to deceive, but about his ability to keep the light of God's word from being spread throughout the world which has lead multitudes to be saved and set free from the penalty of sin for the past 2,000 years or so.The distortion of the Gospel afterwards, the heresies and such as well. Because Satan was not sealed before Christ ascended, while Satan roamed, the early Christians didn't have any problems; not till he was sealed according to you. Satan free, no problem. Satan sealed, problem. It isn't logical. Satan wasn't involved in Nazi Germany? Satan wasnt involved with LGBTQIA? Satan wasnt involved with distorting God's word? Satan wasnt involved with Muslim's killing Christians?
You assume it's talking about him being completely incapacitated, but that isn't what his binding is about.1 Peter 5 says the devil is still prowling around seeking who he can devour. That doesnt sound like someone in prison. I know if I am locked up, I cant prowl around devouring people in the world.
No, that is according to scripture.Let me go back to that verse in Rev 20.
those who had not worshiped the beast or its image, and had not received its mark on their foreheads or hands. And they came to life and reigned with Christ for a thousand years.
After Christ ascended, he was reigning according to you.
Please read this:
Ephesians 1:19 and his incomparably great power for us who believe. That power is the same as the mighty strength 20 he exerted when he raised Christ from the dead and seated him at his right hand in the heavenly realms, 21 far above all rule and authority, power and dominion, and every name that is invoked, not only in the present age but also in the one to come. 22 And God placed all things under his feet and appointed him to be head over everything for the church, 23 which is his body, the fullness of him who fills everything in every way.
This passage indicates that God the Father placed His Son Jesus Christ "far above all rule and authority, power and dominion, and every name that is invoked...in the present age" when "he raised Christ from the dead and seated him at his right hand in the heavenly realms". And it says that "God placed all things under his feet".
You assume it's all about the future, but I disagree with your assumptions.When did the beast and its image and its mark show up? When did the man of sin show up? By saying Christ reigns now, you are making the beast of the sea, the image of the 1st beast, the mark of the first beast and the beast of the earth all prior to Christ ascension even though Revelation wasnt written till about 96AD and it was concerning John's future.
These are loaded questions that take a lot of time to answer, so I will just give a general answer for now. I do not see all of that as being finished at the cross. I see the beast as generally referring to Satan's kingdom or the world in the same sense that Jesus talked about "the world" here:If "these did not worship the beast or its image or its mark", and youre saying this event is symbolic, youre implying this event which is most of the prophecy of Revelation finished at the cross. Who was the man of sin? Who was the false prophet?
John 15:18 “If the world hates you, keep in mind that it hated me first. 19 If you belonged to the world, it would love you as its own. As it is, you do not belong to the world, but I have chosen you out of the world. That is why the world hates you.
In Revelation 13 it indicates that all whose names are not written in the book of life worship the beast. All unbelievers belong to the world while unbelievers do not belong to the world and we are instead chosen out of the world. Satan is the god of this evil world so that's why the beast gets its power and authority from the dragon, Satan.
As far as the man of sin, I don't see that as referring to an individual man. The following passage refers to "the man of God", but we know it's referring to the people of God in a general sense rather than to an individual man.
2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.
I'm not saying that this passage relates to the man of sin, I'm simply using this passage to show that just as "the man of God" is not referring to an individual man here, I believe "the man of sin" is also not referring to an individual man, but rather to sinful people in general. In 2 Thess 2 Paul talks about a mass falling away occurring before the return of Christ so I believe Paul is talking about people deciding that they don't need God anymore and they leave the church (the temple of God) while essentially declaring themselves to be God (since they indicate that they don't need God).
Think about what now? I don't even know what you were trying to say here. Can you try again? You know that the beast was in the bottomless pit at the time John wrote the book, don't you? That is what is indicated in Revelation 17:8. I believe if the beast is in the abyss/bottomless pit then it only follows that Satan is as well since they work together.If John was told that 7 heads of the dragon existed and 5 were fallen and 1 is in John's time...how is Satan sealed at 96AD if 1 "is" and the other has yet to come? That is a 60+ year difference from Christ ascending to John receiving Revelation and the dragon still roams with 2 heads that still wear 2 crowns. Think about that!