I have missed nothing, although I wouldn't dare to presume I fully understand all there is in relation to our redemption. For that reason I tend to rely very heavily on God's word when it comes to understanding scripture and doctrine. So when I read that Christ is the 'end' of the law to all those that believe, I do not take it at face value. I do not presume that the word 'end' means finished, or that all of a sudden the law ceases to exert any authority for God's subjects, or that it ceases to be a written representation of God's will for our lives or a representation of the type of characters we are to form by faith in the power and grace of God working in us through His holy Spirit. I certainly don't accept any man's distorted or convoluted interpretation without corroborating evidence from other portions of scripture.
So when I see in one instance man's understanding telling me that the law no longer applies to me, then I ask myself some questions...is this what the scriptures teach? If one commandment no longer applies, why not the rest? If none apply, why not? Is the government of God now without a law to govern its subjects while at the same time the same government demands we obey man's laws regarding give-way signs at intersections? If the law no longer applies, how then can Paul describe as holy, just, and good?
I also seek confirmation from history. For example. Did the early church in the form of the apostolic writings seek to live holy and righteous lives? Answer...absolutely. Did the early church uphold those same moral values and Godly standards as was given to God's people throughout the previous 4000 years to emulate? Absolutely. Did the early church uphold obedience in all things as being the will of the Father as exemplified throughout the life of His Son? Absolutely. Did the early church as revealed in the book of Acts as part and parcel of that obedience meet together every Sabbath for fellowship, the breaking of bread (Bible study and/or communion) and opportunities for witness? Absolutely. Did the early church in the book of Acts or in any of the apostolic writings give any indication either in explicit teaching or in demonstration that one of the principle practices of ancient Israel that set them uniquely apart from all the nations round about them, that being the Sabbath, had been cast aside or was no longer to be observed? Absolutely not. Did the Judaisers and Jewish legalists that sought to impose circumcision upon the new Gentile converts also demand those same Gentile converts to observe Sabbath? Absolutely not. Why not? Because they were already doing so, and therefore there was no controversy over the issue.
Now I do not think I have missed anything. However, if you can present to me from scripture a clear and explicit teaching that an institution that survived 4000 years from creation even to the present day, and an institution that is to be observed in the new world, is now obsolete, even temporarily, then please, indeed correct me.
Thank you for your civil response. By this I know that you have the love of God in you. Nonetheless, you have indeed given me much to correct.
Beginning with the law (which includes the Sabbath keeping commandment): Just as it is referred to now in the same way even in secular circles, the law of God was given as a "practice", meaning to keep it as an ordinance forever. On this, I am not against you. So, then, the disagreement is rather one of what is meant by "forever", and by whom. In order to have understanding on this, we must first be willing to acknowledge what Jesus Christ has done. That acknowledgement should be easy, but you apparently do not acknowledge that Jesus made it clear that He "
did not come to destroy the law and the Prophets...but to fulfill." And then gave report with His last breath, saying, "
It is finished."
However, instead of accepting these very simple and clear words of scripture, you recoil when they are pointed out to you, misunderstanding that the law and the prophets are not destroyed or "obsolete" as you accuse those of us who repeat the scriptures, but are in fact fulfilled. And why...because you yourself cannot imagine that life should go on without the law? Well, the point is, that it does not, but is fulfilled - that the thing practiced for in anticipation of its fulfillment, has come. Do you not understand that
practice is to make perfect, which we now have attained through Christ? "
Therefore you shall be perfect, just as your Father in heaven is perfect." This is like not accepting that Christ has completely fulfilled the the penalty for sin, and then setting out to fulfill it yourself with your own works. Both are not the truth according to God.
But perhaps, and apparently, you find exception in the word that it is to be kept "
as an ordinance forever." And to those to whom it was given, this is already true - for, again, it is "
fulfilled" in Christ who came specifically for the house of Israel to whom the ordinance was given. Perhaps then you believe that He did not "
finish" or "
fulfill" what He came to fulfill regarding them, as He said. That when He also said that "
And other sheep I have which are not of this fold; them also I must bring, and they will hear My voice; and there will be one flock and one shepherd", that He went to the Father and did not bring with Him the first "
fold" which was Israel, even though the scriptures indicate that He did. However, I will tell you that it is that dividing line between those very clear and different "
folds", is the very point that you have missed in your acknowledgement of all that Christ has "
fulfilled", which is now history. And if "
fulfilled", then therefore "
perfect", and no more in need of "
practice." For, who practices
after the race is won?
So, then, if we believe the scriptures and the words of Christ, we have no need of "
practice", but rather to "
receive" that which was won over for both flocks. Do you not know that whoever "
does not receive His words, has that which judges him—the word that He has spoken will judge him in the last day?"
Still, you may say, but He also said to "
keep My commandments." Nonetheless, the answer is the same: what is attained, is attained already. In which case He does not say "
keep My commandments" to those who have been made "
perfect", but rather only to those to whom He spoke, which had not yet attained what could not yet be received, for He was not yet "
finished" when He spoke it to them.
As for the Sabbath day now being holy - it is holy - for it is established. But, it was not given to the gentiles - and these are the times of the gentiles. Do you not know that Jacob's glory is not our glory, and that our glory is not their glory? Do you not know that you are attempting to make all men "
the first who would be last?" Why should men leave their own flock and steal from another flock which is not their own? In doing so, you do no service to God or to men. How is it that you do not know that if you come among them with such intent you are then subject again to the law and guilty of stealing against the commandment: "
Thou shall not steal?" Moreover, that you also steal from yourself, that which was given for your glory and not for theirs - for which you will be judged the last day?
For this very reason, Jesus came to His disciples before praying the night He was taken and warned them not to sleep. But the third time He found them sleeping
and "
resting" - which is a foreshadowing of these times after He entered into His rest. But it is not the resting that is not correct for these times, but the sleeping. No, we are to rise up above that first fold, as He said after finding them sleeping the third time and resting, "
Rise up, let us be going." For these are not the times of Jacob's trouble, but the times of the gentiles, the times of those who "
are alive and remain" - for those who will receive it.
As for the history of practices you mentioned - you are wrong. How many of the seven churches had it right? Are we not their children, and yet six out of seven did not even begin as good or faithful?