No, they don't clearly indicate that at all and I've proven that in great detail in other threads. I won't waste my time here on it again, but the words in all those verses DO NOT make that clear - as well as the verses prior to the John verses, as well as in other places in John that prove that only Jesus' sheep can hear His voice.
Those verses all describe people who are clearly not believers as being resurrected. Deny it if you want, but it IS very clear in all of those verses.
It is an absolute certainty that those verses do not prove what you are claiming they do. Period.
I disagree. Those verses are very clearly talking about bodily resurrection and it is certain that believers would not be described as being resurrected unto shame and everlasting contempt or unto condemnation.
There is ample evidence in Scripture that a human being must have specific things take place in their life for them to have resurrection life - which proves beyond any shadow of a doubt that NOT everybody will be raised, at ANY time.
One glaring contradiction is the Daniel 12:2 verse does NOT say 'all', but says 'many.'
No Bible genius in the world can make the case that the word many does NOT imply an incomplete amount.
Many cannot in any way shape or form be translated as all; and the weight of Scripture as a whole proves that there will 100% certainly be those who are not raised from the dead.
It's just a Fact. Easily proven with Scripture.
I told you already before that the word "many" can describe the amount of something and doesn't necessarily mean not all. You apparently just ignored that. I gave the example of when Jesus said "many are called, but few are chosen". Was He saying that only some people are called to salvation and few are chosen or was He describing all people being called as "many"? You know He was talking about all people being called, so this proves that "many" does not necessarily mean "not all".
Let me give you a few examples from the Old Testament since the verse you're talking about, Daniel 12:2, is in the Old Testament. The word "many" in that verse is translated from the Hebrew word "
raḇ" (Strong's H7227).
That word is used in the following verses:
Genesis 21:34 And Abraham sojourned in the Philistines' land
many (raḇ) days.
Is this verse only speaking of some of the days that Abraham sojourned in the Philistines' land or all of the days he sojourned there? Clearly, it's referring to all of the days he sojourned there, the number of which was "many".
Genesis 30:43 And the man increased exceedingly, and had
much (raḇ) cattle, and maidservants, and menservants, and camels, and asses.
It's not relevant to the discussion, but "the man" here is referring to Jacob. Is this talking about some of Jacob's cattle, maidservants, etc. or all of Jacob's cattle, maidservants, etc.? It's clear that it's referring to all of them and the number of them was described as "much".
Psalm 40:5
Many (rab), O LORD my God,
are thy wonderful works
which thou hast done, and thy thoughts
which are to us-ward: they cannot be reckoned up in order unto thee:
if I would declare and speak
of them, they are more than can be numbered.
Is this talking only about some of God's wonderful works or all of them? Clearly, it's referring to all of them and the number of them is "many".
Daniel 8:26 And the vision of the evening and the morning which was told
is true: wherefore shut thou up the vision; for it
shall be for
many (rab) days.
Is this verse, that obviously comes from the same book as Daniel 12:2, only referring to some of the days that would go by until the vision/prophecy Daniel was given would be fulfilled or is it referring to all of the days until it would be fulfilled? It's clearly referring to all of the days until it would be fulfilled, the number of which would be "many".
I can give many more examples like these but I think I have sufficiently proven that your claim that the word "many" in Daniel 12:2 has to mean "not all" is clearly false.