While I agree Covenantee, I'm thinking of "telos" is the end of the OT that came through the cross, and 70 AD the resulting desolation of that end?
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Not sure how you come to that conclusion. But it is not true. When it comes to time, Scripture shows us that it has a definite beginning and a definite end. Before and after time we are looking at eternity. The beginning of time occurred when God created a means of measuring time – namely night and day. This revolves around His creation of the sun and the moon to provide distinct and calculable days, weeks, months and years. This takes us right back to creation. Time will end when Jesus comes in all His final majesty and glory. Time takes us from the commencement of “this age” to “the end of this age.” The term “this age” therefore applies to the whole period that covers time. Time finishes when Christ usher in eternity at His return.
This is seen by comparing the vivid and repeated biblical detail pertaining to “this age” and “the age to come.” This age is depicted as evil, carnal, corrupt and temporal, whereas, the age to come is depicted as perfect, renewed, glorified and eternal. This age involves mortal believers and unbelievers. The age to come belongs exclusively to the glorified elect. One must be worthy to inherit it (namely being redeemed). One must be fittingly prepared to enter it (namely through glorification). Sin, sinners, death and decay, rebellion and war, attend the whole duration of “this age,” whereas, the age to come is described as a perfected unending arrangement where perfected believers possess a perfected earth. All the ugly result of the fall is finally removed. Satan has been stripped of his power and banished to the lake of fire. Sin and sickness, corruption and the curse are now destroyed, never to race anymore.
The word telos, used in 1 Corinthians 1:7-8 and 15:24, is coupled to, and prefixed with, the popular Greek word sun (Strong’s 4862) – denoting union and togetherness. The word carries the overall meaning of the entire end.
Isaiah 46:9-10 uses two other Hebrew words that are more commonly used in the Old Testament. The text reads: “I am God, and there is none like me, Declaring the end [Heb. achărı̂yth] from the beginning [Heb. rê'shı̂yth], and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying.”
This contrast is extremely useful in that it gives us a sense of the two antithetical events – it gives us the two divergent realities. It also supplies us with two suitable Hebrew words for the same.
It is the same in the New Testament. Jesus teaches in Revelation 22:6: “I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning [Gr. archē] and the end [Gr. telos].”
Jesus said in Revelation 22:13: “I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning [Gr. archē] and the end [Gr. telos], the first [Gr. protos] and the last [Gr. eschatos].”
It is not hard to grasp the import of this teaching. Firstly, Alpha (Α or α) and omega (Ω or ω) are the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet. These sum up the divine character of Jesus. Next, we are confronted with the words “first” and “last.” The English words are taken from the Greek words protos and eschatos and are widely accepted by all unbiased theologians to denote exactly what they say. It is explicitly clear from their usage, meaning and context in the New Testament that these words are the exact antithesis of each other. Frequently they are found in the same verse and in the same setting to relay opposites. Also, we are told that Christ is “the beginning and the end.” Again, it is not hard to get our heads round this. He is from start to finish.
This text is telling us that Jesus is the source and completion of everything that occurs. Another Scripture that relays that seem great truth is Hebrews 12:2: “Looking unto Jesus the author [Gr. archēgos] and finisher [Gr. teleiōtēs] of our faith.”
Jesus makes clear (and unambiguously) in Matthew 24:14: “this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end (or telos) come.”
This couldn’t be clearer! Now is man's only hope of salvation. The whole wider redemptive history of mankind is encompassed between Adam and the second coming of the second Adam. The period that we are currently in today is the day of grace (the day of salvation). Jesus is not coming again as Savior but as Judge. Premils and Preterists do not believe that “the end” refers to the end. The phrase “the end” here refers to the conclusion or the completion.
The Apostle Paul instructs the believer in 1 Corinthians 1:7-8 to “come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming [Gr. parousia] of our Lord Jesus Christ: Who shall also confirm you unto the end [Gr. telos], that ye may be blameless in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.”
This promise was never intended to relate to, or expire at, AD70. This is a promise that relates to our earthly sojourn in this sinful world in life and time.
I wouldn't disagree, rwb, however, if we look at the descriptions...While I agree Covenantee, I'm thinking of "telos" is the end of the OT that came through the cross, and 70 AD the resulting desolation of that end?
Not in Matthew 24.It is speaking about the end – the consummation. In fact, the all-consummating Coming of Christ.
I wouldn't disagree, rwb, however, if we look at the descriptions...
Matthew 24
4 And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you.
5 For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall deceive many.
6 And ye shall hear of wars and rumours of wars: see that ye be not troubled: for all these things must come to pass, but the end is not yet.
...we see that they, i.e. deceivers, wars, and rumors of wars, occurred after Calvary but before 70AD; thus "end" in verse 6 logically refers to 70AD.
Similarly here:
Matthew 24
14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.
The gospel was preached in all the world after Calvary, and prior to 70AD, thus "end" logically refers to 70AD.
I wouldn't disagree, rwb, however, if we look at the descriptions...
Matthew 24
4 And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you.
5 For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall deceive many.
6 And ye shall hear of wars and rumours of wars: see that ye be not troubled: for all these things must come to pass, but the end is not yet.
...we see that they, i.e. deceivers, wars, and rumors of wars, occurred after Calvary but before 70AD; thus "end" in verse 6 logically refers to 70AD.
Similarly here:
Matthew 24
14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.
The gospel was preached in all the world after Calvary, and prior to 70AD, thus "end" logically refers to 70AD.
They were happening in the build up to 70AD - the end of the OT Jewish economy.But that was not happening in the build up to the cross - the end of the old covenant.
Further Scriptural and historical confirmation.I understand how 70 AD seems to fit the prophetic words of Christ. What causes me to conclude Christ was speaking of the end of the Old as being the advent of Christ's cross, is remembering who Christ was speaking to. Yes, they are Jews, but first and foremost in my mind they are His disciples. I believe the deception Christ was warning the disciples of, speaks of liars, false apostles, false doctrine etc. Those who claim to be of Christ, acknowledging that Christ is "I Am" who was to come. Christ warns His disciples that "time draweth near" so they are forewarned not to follow after them. Don't believe those who say Christ is here, or there while looking for the Kingdom of God. Because the Kingdom of God is not now of this earth, and is not physically discerned, but shall be in you through His Spirit.
Luke 21:8 (KJV) And he said, Take heed that ye be not deceived: for many shall come in my name, saying, I am (Christ); and the time draweth near: go ye not therefore after them.
Since the audience is Christ's disciples, and the greatest enemy they would encounter would be Satan and his angels. The battle between the forces for good and the forces for evil began in earnest when Satan and his angels warred against Michael and his angels in heaven. When Christ was born this great spiritual battle in heaven commenced. And Satan and his angels were cast out of heaven to the earth, and immediately this spiritual warfare that began in heaven continued on earth with Satan trying to stop the Kingdom of God in heaven from being built as the Church went into all the nations of the earth with the message of Christ (Gospel) in the power of the Spirit. I believe this is the war and rumor of wars Christ warns His disciples would come. Not physical warfare, but spiritual warfare that would bring "great tribulation" to the Church on earth until the spiritual Kingdom of God in heaven is complete.
Yes, I agree the Gospel had been preached in the world known only as the regions then existing after Calvary. But the end for the Old Covenant through Calvary began another ending for ALL mankind, that will not come until all that is written shall be fulfilled.
Matthew 24:29-31 (KJV) Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
But the OT Jewish economy finished at the cross. The cross is constantly shown as the introduction point of the new new covenant and the termination point of the old covenant. The old covenant is dead. It is gone. AD70 was not the end of the old covenant. That occurred 40 years earlier. When Christ said "it is finished" on the cross that was the end of the old covenant arrangement. From a heavenly perspective the renting of the veil finished the temple sacrifices forever. Whilst Matthew doesn’t identify what Christ said before He gave up the ghost John does in 19:30: “When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.”They were happening in the build up to 70AD - the end of the OT Jewish economy.
The old covenant finished at the cross. The OT Jewish economy did not. Jerusalem, the temple, blasphemous sacrifices, et al continued until 70AD, as we all recognize.But the OT Jewish economy finished at the cross.
The old covenant finished at the cross. The OT Jewish economy did not. Jerusalem, the temple, blasphemous sacrifices, et al continued until 70AD, as we all recognize.
If the OT Jewish economy had finished at the cross, then 70AD would have served no purpose, and would not have been necessary.
But it did, and was.
It makes complete sense.I don't agree. This doesn't make sense.
It was dead. It was worthless. It was finished. The new replaced the old at the cross.
He gave the Jews 40 years to repent before destroying the temple, but that did not in any way legitimize their rebellious ongoing trust in the abolished ceremonial sacrifice system. The cross had rendered it all obsolete and dead.
I agree.James 5:8 (KJVSL) Be μακροθυμέω ye ὑμεῖς also καί patient μακροθυμέω; stablish στηρίζω your ὑμῶν hearts καρδία: for ὅτι the coming παρουσία of the Lord κύριος draweth nigh ἐγγίζω.
Strong's Greek Dictionary
1448. ἐγγίζω engizo (engízō)
Search for G1448 in KJVSL; in KJV
ἐγγίζω engízō, eng-id'-zo
from G1451; to make near, i.e. (reflexively) approach:—approach, be at hand, come (draw) near, be (come, draw) nigh.
As you can see, the Greek word translated "draweth nigh" is saying the coming of the Lord is approaching. You can confirm this yourself by looking at the various verses where this Greek word has been defined. If the coming of the Lord is approaching, or draweth near, there is not reference to time whether short or long. Therefore this verse does not support and opinion that the Lord has come in AD 70, nor does it tell us it will be a very long time before He comes again. The only conclusion we can draw is that the Lord shall come again, and that all is being made ready for His return whenever that shall be.
I think that's an acceptable way of looking at 1 Peter 4:7. But, I think looking at it similarly to how you look at James 5:8 (which I agree with) is acceptable as well and that's how I tend to look at 1 Peter 4:7 (that it's talking about the end of all things as approaching). The same Greek word translated as "draweth nigh" in James 5:8 is used in 1 Peter 4:7 in regards to the end of all things. So, I don't see any reason not to interpret the word the same way in both verses.Not everything ordained to come to pass when the Messiah came was finished at Pentecost. That was the beginning of these last days we've been living in since the cross. The end of all things has come and is coming, and is drawing near, is at hand, is ready to be fulfilled as the spiritual Kingdom of God in heaven is being built as the Gospel is proclaimed in the power of the Spirit.
I disagree. I don't see how you could possibly conclude that He's not talking about His second coming in verses 30-31. If those verses aren't about HIs second coming, then I don't know what verses are. I guess you are closer to being a partial preterist than I thought. Do you consider yourself to be one or do you consider yourself to be a historicist?The focus on 70AD continues to at least verse 29, and arguably to verse 35, after which Jesus addresses His Second Coming.
How does it make sense? You are using terms that aren't used in scripture, so that is adding confusion to this discussion. Scripture never references the "OT Jewish economy", so can you define exactly what that is? Scripture does reference the old covenant and the old covenant was made obsolete by the death of Christ and not in 70 AD.It makes complete sense.
What was/were God's reason/s for the destruction of Jerusalem?
Show me where there is a reference to "the OT Jewish economy". What does that even mean? I don't think different words being used that basically mean the same thing is enough evidence to conclude that when He referenced "the end" that it wasn't a reference to the end of the age.
Jerusalem was destroyed. It was brought to an end in 70AD.How does it make sense? You are using terms that aren't used in scripture, so that is adding confusion to this discussion. Scripture never references the "OT Jewish economy", so can you define exactly what that is? Scripture does reference the old covenant and the old covenant was made obsolete by the death of Christ and not in 70 AD.
But Matthew 24:6,13-14 (the verses where "telos" was used and translated as "the end") aren't about Christ's death on the cross, so "telos" can't be referring to His death on the cross and the end of the old covenant, if that is your point.While I agree Covenantee, I'm thinking of "telos" is the end of the OT that came through the cross, and 70 AD the resulting desolation of that end?
Yes, of course. But, is that "the end" Jesus was talking about? Considering that He was asked about "the end of the age" and considering that 70 AD was not the end of the age, I don't think so. I know you pointed out that a different Greek word translated as "the end" was used in verse 3 than was used in verses 6, 13 and 14, but I don't see that as really making any difference. The end is the end. The same word doesn't need to be used every time it's referenced.Jerusalem was destroyed. It was brought to an end in 70AD.
The ancient earthly city of Jerusalem? No, of course not. The old covenant is a reference to the law of Moses and included the animal sacrifices that were performed at the temple and such that it required. Why are you asking me this?Was Jerusalem the old covenant?
You're claiming that "end" refers to the end of the old covenant.Yes, of course. But, is that "the end" Jesus was talking about? Considering that He was asked about "the end of the age" and considering that 70 AD was not the end of the age, I don't think so. I know you pointed out that a different Greek word translated as "the end" was used in verse 3 than was used in verses 6, 13 and 14, but I don't see that as really making any difference. The end is the end. The same word doesn't need to be used every time it's referenced.
The ancient earthly city of Jerusalem? No, of course not. The old covenant is a reference to the law of Moses and included the animal sacrifices that were performed at the temple and such that it required. Why are you asking me this?