Romans 11:25-27. New prophecy about the future or old prophecy about an ongoing reality?

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CadyandZoe

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Why then did Jesus not rebuke him as an idolater?

Did followers of Jesus in the New Testament worship Him? Was that right or wrong?
The Greek word Theos:God, doesn't refer to deity in every case. It can also refer to royalty.
 

WPM

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Yes, he has the character of God. But his name is Jesus.

Yes, the Son of God. God manifest in flesh, in whom dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead. As much as you hate to hear this great heavenly truth.
 

WPM

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The Greek word Theos:God, doesn't refer to deity in every case. It can also refer to royalty.

Stop avoiding:

Did followers of Jesus in the New Testament worship Him? Was that right or wrong?
 

WPM

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Isaiah is not talking about the quiddity of the Child. He is talking about the child's qualities, his character and his role.

Yes. His character is the "mighty God." Hello! There is nothing you can do to explain that away.
 

CadyandZoe

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Do you think I'm going to pay attention to anything you say at this point? Think again. You are deceived and are a false teacher. Your lies will be exposed. You have no discernment whatsoever. Jesus is both fully man AND fully God. You're not differentiating between His humanity and deity, which exposes your utter lack of discernment. Jesus is God. Thomas understood that, so why don't you?

John 20:28 Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!”
Were you paying attention? I couldn't tell.
Only God the father can be fully God.

God is infinite
Jesus is not infinite. He is located in one place at a time. Matthew 8:1

God is self-existing
Jesus is not self-existing. He was born of the virgin Mary. Matthew 1:18-24

God is immutable
Jesus is not immutable. He was born, he existed as a child, and an adult. Luke 2:4

God is self-sufficient
Jesus is not self-sufficient, worked as a carpenter Mark 6:3

God is omnipotent
Jesus is not omnipotent. He relies on angels. Matthew 26:53

God is omniscient
Jesus is not omniscient. The father knows the day and the hour, not the son. Matthew 24:36

God is omnipresent
Jesus is not omnipresent. Mark 16:6

A fare examination of the New Testament reveals that Jesus is not fully God as some suppose. Rather, Jesus fully represents God's character, and his will to human kind.

God is perfectly moral,
Jesus is perfectly moral

God his holy
JEsus is holy,

God is loving
Jesus is loving

God is gracious
Jesus is gracious

God is merciful
Jesus is merciful

God is just
Jesus is just

God is good
Jesus is good

God is faithful
Jesus is faithful

God is wise
Jesus is wise
 

CadyandZoe

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Yes. His character is the "mighty God." Hello! There is nothing you can do to explain that away.
I am not explaining that away. You equate character with divinity. I don't. Jesus is God incarnate. The Father is divine.
 

CadyandZoe

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Do you believe that Jesus didn't exist before He was born of the virgin Mary?

If so, what do you make of this:

John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

Colossians 1:For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him.
Jesus did not exist before he was born.
John refers to the "logos:word." The Greek is not capitalized. In this context, "logos" refers to God's plan, his script, his promise.
Paul refers to the supremacy of Jesus Christ. God, the father created everything for him, and in view of him.
 

CadyandZoe

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So, are you saying Thomas was mistaken to call Him his God? Jesus certainly didn't correct him after he said that.

You're digging a deeper and deeper hole for yourself here. It would be better for you to repent of your rejection of Christ's deity than to keeping digging it even deeper.
No, Thomas was not mistaken. Those who think Thomas was referring to deity are mistaken.
 

CadyandZoe

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You are a heretic because you're denying the deity of Christ which is taught in scripture repeatedly. The topic of His deity has no direct relation to the topic of the thousand years. A vast majority of both Premils and Amils understand that Jesus is God.
I understand that I am a heretic, with regard to Christian dogma. But Christian dogma is not inspired scripture. And I am fully cognizant that some folks take the easy road, calling someone a heretic is much easier than proving your case. And, I didn't bring up the subject. WPM did.
 

CadyandZoe

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The New Testament narrative, in John 1:1-5, says, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. In him was life; and the life was the light of men. And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not. There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe. He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light. That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.”

Verse 10-14 continues, “He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. He came unto his own, and his own received him not. But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

This passage shows, in unmistakable language, that “the Word” is Christ. It reveals the King of Glory in all His marvelous provision, purpose and power. The reading outlines His eternal pre-existence, powerfully revealing Him as the eternal Son of God; “The same was in the beginning with God” (v 2). Whilst, Christ was man of very man, He was also God of very God. Verse 1 succinctly says, “the Word was God.” Therefore, as the second person of the Trinity, He was the eternal Creator of this world.” Verse 10 tells us, “the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.”

I Corinthians 8:6 says: “there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.”

The Bible acknowledges Jesus as the Word, the Creator.

Ephesians 3:9 tells us: “And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ.”

Colossians 1:13-17 says: “Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated us into the kingdom of his dear Son: In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins: Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.

This passage, which is speaking of Jesus, tells us that “all things were created by him, and for him” which would clearly make Him God.
None of that addresses my post or defeats what I said.
 

WPM

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I am not explaining that away. You equate character with divinity. I don't. Jesus is God incarnate. The Father is divine.

What is Jesus compared to?
 
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CadyandZoe

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That explains why you reacted to my previous post on the subject that absolutely demolishes your post to me.



I will repeat it:

He is both the root and the offspring. This is talking about His Godhood and His manhood. He was before David as Lord and He was after him as his posterity.

On the same vein, Christ asked the Pharisees, in Matthew 22:42-46, “What think ye of Christ (or Messiah)? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David.” He then quoted Psalm 110:1, saying, “The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?” He asked them, “If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?” The Pharisees were bewildered at Christ’s question. The reading states, “And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.”

Christ was here specifically referring to the great mystery of His eternal Sonship (or His pre-existence in all eternity) – a truth that evidently perplexed the religious Pharisees. The religious Pharisees had absolutely no grasp of that great truth. They had no comprehension that He was both before and after David. The answer to the enquiry was that He was before David (being the root of David) in His divine office as the eternal Son of God; therefore, David called Him Lord. Nevertheless, He was also his offspring in a natural sense, through the incarnation at Bethlehem, and was therefore a son of David by way of lineage.
Repeating something doesn't make it true. You are adding you own opinion to scripture.
 

CadyandZoe

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Yes, the Son of God. God manifest in flesh, in whom dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead. As much as you hate to hear this great heavenly truth.
I already demonstrated that Jesus did not have the fulness of the Godhead. Therefore, that Colossians passage is mistranslated.
 

CadyandZoe

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Stop avoiding:

Did followers of Jesus in the New Testament worship Him? Was that right or wrong?
I'm not avoiding anything. Take your pills. Yes, we all worship him. It does not follow that those we worship are deified.
 

CadyandZoe

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It totally demolished your blasphemy and heresy. That is why you duck around it.
I'm not ducking, you are. You have no basis for your claims. None Nada. The scriptures you quoted don't support your contention.
 

WPM

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I already demonstrated that Jesus did not have the fulness of the Godhead. Therefore, that Colossians passage is mistranslated.

So, what is the proper translation?