Saved Or Predestined ???

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Renniks

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The hardening of Israel is absolute, but a temporary situation that will be only until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in.

Those relatively small number of Jews who believed and obeyed the gospel of Jesus Christ, be it then at the days of the apostles and thereafter, could only be among the elect remnant and could not be from among those who were hardened by God.

Tong
R0587
Only if you believe in individual election. Otherwise, why was Jesus preaching to them? What about the Jews who believed after Pentecost? Remember, Paul said those hardened were not beyond being saved, so there goes your whole claim here out the window. If they could at any point in time go from being hardened to being saved, individual election is proven to be false.
 

Renniks

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Renniks, it is God who gave the man, his will, right? It is also God who gave the man, his life, right? Afterall, it is God who gave the man, everything that the man have, right? Whatever happens to whatever that man have that God had given him is his responsibility, right? Man essentially had lost the life that God gave him when he sinned, rendering him as one essentially dead.

Can you tell us what happened to his will when he sinned? Had not his will been impaired?

Tong
R0588
Yes, it's mans' responsibility, but not in your scheme where God does everything. Essentially dead or literally dead? Because essentially dead means we can respond to the live giver and be brought back to life. Literally dead means we are just corpses and can not be saved. Now, I know some Calvinist is going to bring up Lazarus., and that's fine for an analogy, but not for the complete reality of how salvation works. God doesn't drag our bones in against our will. His Spirit speaks to us and we either respond or not.

Ephesians 6:17
And take the helmet of salvation, and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God,

Acts 7:51
“You stiff-necked people, uncircumcised in heart and ears, you always resist the Holy Spirit. As your fathers did, so do you.

See the contrast? We have to take action in order to be saved or we can take the opposite action of resistance and stay in our sin.
We all know we are capable of resisting because we have all done it.
 

Renniks

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Would you not agree that the natural man, that is, the dead in sin, had lost his ability to know the things of the Spirit of God? And because of that, he is rendered to not be able to spiritually respond, as though, spiritually dead in relation to God.
If we can not respond to the Spirit, we could never be saved in the first place.
But we can.

In him you also, when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and believed in him, were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit,

Romans 10:13
For “everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.”

Notice the action verbs. This calling isn't only in one direction. Deep calls to deep. Every man is born with a spirit capable of responding to the Holy Spirit.

"Spirit and the Bride say, “Come.” And let the one who hears say, “Come.” And let the one who is thirsty come; let the one who desires take the water of life without price."

"Draw near to God, and he will draw near to you. Cleanse your hands, you sinners, and purify your hearts, you double-minded."
 

Renniks

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With your line of thinking, and with that belief, then it is like saying that one cannot be saved without having a free will.

So with your line of thinking, man, by his having a free will, is responsible for his condemnation. And likewise then, man, by his having free will, is responsible for his salvation.

That all boils down to saying that everything concerning man is really about the free will of man, isn't it?

Tong
R0590
Not even close. But without free will, the entire Bible turns into nonsense. If Adam was not really given a choice, what was he punished for? If the people of Noah's time had no other choice but debauchery, why were they drowned ?
And on and on it goes. Freedom is necessary for reward and punishment to be just.
 

JunChosen

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The methodology by which God elects people to salvation is through a remnant (few) which is true for every nation.
 

Renniks

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"For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure." (Philippians 2.13)
"Thy people shall be willing in the day of thy power..." (Psalm 11.3)
Cutting pieces of verses out but no context, how Calvinists of you!

" Therefore, my dear friends, as you have always obeyed—not only in my presence, but now much more in my absence—continue to work out your salvation with fear and trembling,..." And how ironic that this precedes the verse you quoted, yes, God works in you, if you do what is commanded here.
 

Renniks

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I understand what "everyone" there means and what verse 13 is saying? Do you? I see again here your problem in understanding "everyone" which is the same problem you have with the word "all" as used in another verse. You don't know how to qualify such terms, wherein here, you seem to want to make "everyone" to include even those already in the grave and those God had hardened and blinded. "Everyone" there excludes those already in the grave and all others who are not able to call on the Lord, such as those whom God had hardened and blinded. Besides the verse does not say "Everyone can call on the name of the Lord...."

Tong
R0591
How amusing that those who believe in individual election, always consider themselves one of the "everyone"!

It's okay to believe the faceless majority is irresistibly damned, but not that they probably are too.
 

Tong2020

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This is speaking of the gospel going out the gentile world.
Yes.

It obviously does not negate the gentiles responsibility to respond to the gospel in order to be saved.
What you say there does not in any way refute what I said in my post which you responded to.

In fact, why preach the gospel at all if God is just picking some for salvation and some for damnation?
So, what do you suggest God do, rely on man's disposition, in the accomplishment of His salvation? Or, what do you suggest we do, to not preach? God's election does not make preaching of no need. God's election does not take away the truth that God saves through faith. Now faith comes by hearing the word of God, and so we preach. It also does not take away the truth that we do not know who among men are the chosen of God until they are manifested by their coming to Jesus Christ, that is, believing in Him. And so we preach.

God does not elect people for damnation, rather, God elects a people to be His people whom He saves from damnation.

Will they not find God regardless if they are among the chosen?
Let me share to you an ancient true story which gives us a picture of what a sinner naturally does.

Genesis 3:1 Now the serpent was more cunning than any beast of the field which the Lord God had made. And he said to the woman, “Has God indeed said, ‘You shall not eat of every tree of the garden’?”

2 And the woman said to the serpent, “We may eat the fruit of the trees of the garden; 3 but of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God has said, ‘You shall not eat it, nor shall you touch it, lest you die.’ ”

4 Then the serpent said to the woman, “You will not surely die. 5 For God knows that in the day you eat of it your eyes will be opened, and you will be like God, knowing good and evil.”

6 So when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree desirable to make one wise, she took of its fruit and ate. She also gave to her husband with her, and he ate. 7 Then the eyes of both of them were opened, and they knew that they were naked; and they sewed fig leaves together and made themselves coverings.

8 And they heard the sound of the Lord God walking in the garden in the cool of the day, and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the Lord God among the trees of the garden.

9 Then the Lord God called to Adam and said to him, “Where are you?”


The sinner hides from the Lord, and the Lord is Him who seeks.

Now regarding your question, my answer is no.

Individual election destroys any reason for evangelism.
It does not.

Tong
R0595
 

Renniks

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That was what I posted regarding the elect remnant and the blinded Israel. I'll add this question: What is your take on this phrase in verse 4, "I have reserved for Myself"?
I dosdo not see this as a reference to the individual election of seven thousand men, but to God's preserving those who are faithful to him. And this is what we found when we look at Arminian commentators like Adam Clarke.
"These [seven thousand] had continued faithful to God; but, because of Jezebel's persecution, they were obliged to conceal their attachment to the true religion; and God, in his providence, preserved them from her sanguinary rage. "
Another commentary by Cottrell:
"Certainly this is an act of God regarding these men, but God's act is conditioned on the fact that they "have not bowed the knee to Baal." God is telling Elijah, "There are more than just you who have remained faithful. Indeed, I have identified and singled out from the great majority of Israelites a group of seven thousand true worshipers. I have separated them from the rest; in my sight they are a different group, a remnant. These are the ones I have kept in my saving grace and in close fellowship with myself."

The "election" of these seven thousand is conditioned on their faithfulness – those won by grace are thereby "elected," as I explained before.
 

Renniks

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So, what do you suggest God do, rely on man's disposition, in the accomplishment of His salvation? Or, what do you suggest we do, to not preach? God's election does not make preaching of no need. God's election does not take away the truth that God saves through faith. Now faith comes by hearing the word of God, and so we preach.
No, not if individual election is true. Surely you can see that if someone is pre chosen he can not be damned, whether he ever hears the gospel or not. And that the one chosen to be reprobate can't be saved regardless.

John Calvin at least understood that his theology led to Divine determinism.

" the sum of the whole is this – since the will of God is said to be the cause of all things, all the counsels and actions of men must be held to be governed by his providence; so that he not only exerts his power in the elect, who are guided by the Holy Spirit, but also forces the reprobate to do him service.” ( John Calvin)
 

JunChosen

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Not even close. But without free will, the entire Bible turns into nonsense. If Adam was not really given a choice, what was he punished for? If the people of Noah's time had no other choice but debauchery, why were they drowned ?
And on and on it goes. Freedom is necessary for reward and punishment to be just.

In Adam's case, he was the only human created "good" (perfect) therefore the only one with free will. Remember, there was no sin in the Garden at that time until he disobeyed God and lost his free will, and everything good in him.

Since the fall man became a sinner without a free will that is, he became spiritually dead and lost all fellowship with God!

Now work with that premise.

To God Be The Glory
 

Renniks

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Let me quote that verse with the context.

Romans 11: 30 For as you were once disobedient to God, yet have now obtained mercy through their disobedience, 31 even so these also have now been disobedient, that through the mercy shown you they also may obtain mercy. 32 For God has committed them all to disobedience, that He might have mercy on all.

What do you say the "all" there in v.32 mean?

What is your understanding of verses 30-31?
It means all, every one who has ever lived since Adam.
The Jews rebellion sent the gospel to the gentiles. So in that sense it became easier to obtain mercy because of thier rebellion.and Paul is hopeful that the same will happen in reverse, as the Jews become jealous of the gentiles faith.
He does not. You only think he thinks like you. By that, you would be making Paul to go against the scriptures:

John 12:37 But although He had done so many signs before them, they did not believe in Him, 38 that the word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spoke:

“Lord, who has believed our report?
And to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?”

39 Therefore they could not believe, because Isaiah said again:
40 “He has blinded their eyes and hardened their hearts,
Lest they should see with their eyes,
Lest they should understand with their hearts and turn,
So that I should heal them.”


Please tell us, in your reading of the above scriptures, if those blinded and hardened by God could believe or not.
Many did, so obviously it wasn't impossible.
I'd like to highlight this portion of what Pauls said in verse 7 regarding the elect, that is, "but the elect have obtained it". Paul was talking about Israel, and so, the "elect" there refers to the Jews. If you'll notice Paul said "the elect..." (referring to the still unconverted Jews) have obtained it. Paul then was referring to them as "the elect" before they obtained it.
No that's not what it says...it says they have obtained it, not that they obtained it before they were converted!? Where did you get that?
I already pointed out, if that were so, then Paul is going against the scriptures.

First, it's not Paul's definition, but yours. I have already shown you the error of what you say there.

Tong
R0593
No you haven't. Paul was gaining a new understanding of election, and realizing it was about faith in Christ, not being part of a certain ethnic group.
 

Renniks

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No sir. We apparently only differ in our definition.
Uneducated statement? How have I made an uneducated statement? Why, is there in scriptures that defines "corporate election"? For all I know, it is some term that you or others employed to hold a certain idea. And such use of terms are not exclusive to you or the others. I or any Christian could employ the same term to hold an idea different from what you have it mean.

Besides, it is not the term that makes what idea it was employed to hold to be true, but the truth in scriptures.

Tong
R0594
It's important to understand how certain terms are used in the theological world, especially if you're going to argue against them.

"corporate election is the idea that, when God elected or predestined people to be saved, He did not pick out individual people; rather, God chose Christ. Since Christ is the chosen one, all who come to Christ in faith are part of the chosen group. This view is sometimes called “class election” or expressed as God’s predestinating “the way of salvation.” In other words, “God chose the plan, not the man.” He chose the corporate entity in which salvation can take place (“in Christ”), but He did not choose the individuals who would be saved. A person only becomes part of the elect when he or she exercises faith in Christ. People are “chosen” when they choose to join the group that God had chosen."
 

Renniks

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Now regarding your question, my answer is no
Your answer is illogical. And you don't understand individual election, either, it seems. Again, if you are irresistibly chosen from eternity past for salvation, can you mess that up? C'mon, to say you can goes against everything you have been preaching.
 

Renniks

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The sinner hides from the Lord, and the Lord is Him who seeks.
Of course God seeks for us, but he doesn't just seek for some. He seeks whosoever will respond. He convicts the world, not just a few people. If we hide as Adam did, we know our sin and that's a good first step towards asking for help.
 

Renniks

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Now work with that premise
I do. It's simple. God seeks for whoever will respond. He offers salvation to all. We are not capable of saving ourselves, that is correct, but we certainly have to be able to respond, or all the commands to obey or follow are gibberish. Remember Cornelius? He was actively seeking God although he did not yet have access to the gospel. Actually the majority of people in the world, are seeking for truth. If this weren't so, they would all be atheists.
 

Tong2020

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All Israel will be saved doesn't mean every individual Jew. These are highly debated verses.

There are some that believe that phrase means that one day the nation of Israel itself will be re-instituted and every member thereof will be a believer in God through Jesus...Others believe that this verse simply states that God will continue to deal with the people of Israel generation after generation
and that once we have gotten to the end of time we will look back and we will see this great cumulative work that God has done amongst His people... and some just think it means all the true church will be saved. So you need to state your position.
I take notice that it seems with this verse you are open and even acknowledge that "all" does not mean each and every individual Jew.

I will say this: Paul is asserting here that all Jewish people who embrace Christ by faith will be engrafted into the body of Christ.
And he does not downplay the necessity of faith. They will be grafted in for God is able to graft them in again, when they are willing to respond to him. I don't believe this is some kind of prophecy about when that happens, so I think you are misusing the verse.
That's not the issue under discussion. The issue is whether the fullness of the Gentiles has already come in or not yet, or if all Israel had already been saved. For this will settle the matter of the hardening of "the rest" of Israel, whether it had already ended or it still remains. But as you said, you don't know. And so, it is for you, which leaves you somewhat at a lost regarding that matter.

I take knowledge of the mystery which Paul had just revealed therein, that blindness in part has happened to Israel. What is the meaning of this blindness in part? It means that Israel, as a people, as a whole, are blinded to the truth that Jesus Christ as the promised Messiah spoken and prophesied about in the Holy Scriptures, and so they reject the gospel. Why has this happened? According to Paul, taking reference in the OT scriptures, it is because God has given Israel a spirit of stupor, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear (v.8). It is in part, in the sense that God had reserved for Himself, just as He had in past generations of Israel (v.4), a remnant according to the election of grace (v.5), whom He did not harden or blinded (v.7), and whom He saved. Paul said that this hardening and blinding of Israel shall be until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in (v.25). Has this happened yet? Paul gave us a sign that we may know when such had taken place. He said in verse 26, that when that happens, all Israel will be saved. Now, I don't believe that such had already happened simply because, to this very day, it cannot be said that Israel, as a people, as a whole, are saved, that is, believes the gospel of Jesus Christ.

As such then, Israel, to this day, remains in the state of blindness, saved a few, a remnant according to the election of grace.

Tong
R0596
 

Tong2020

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In your scenario, why would God convict the world of sin? John 16:8
And why would He not? In answer to your question, here's a scriptures that gives a direct answer.

John 16:9 of sin, because they do not believe in Me;

God, through the Holy Spirit, will convict the world of sin, because the world do not believe in Him.

How could he not be willing that any perish if he just selected some by throwing dice?
2 Peter 3:9

"For the grace of God has appeared that offers salvation to all people. " Titus 2

What a sad little God you have who has to manipulate a few people into believing and ignores the rest.
That question is for a strawman of your making Renniks and not for me. For I don't believe that God's election is by throwing dice.

2 Peter 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance.

But to say a few words on the scriptures in 2 Peter 3:9 which you cited in reference, you again seem to misuse said scriptures. It has been like this with you where you fail to correctly qualify some terms. In this case the word "us" and the word "all". You also must take note that the verse is talking about God's promise. Now, you must consider to whom the promise is given by God.

Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men,

That is a more literal translation of that scriptures in Titus 2:11. Here are few words on that also. The context tells us that the grace of God that brings salvation, which Paul says has appeared to all men, has everything to do with Jesus Christ.

You said "What a sad little God you have who has to manipulate a few people into believing and ignores the rest." That comment is for another strawman of your making Renniks and not for me. For my God is not whom you say He is. My God does not do that. Rather, He works in the minds and hearts of those whom He saves, convicting them, convincing them, and converting them. To you perhaps that is manipulation. But it is not. That is grace.

Did God manipulate Paul or was that grace? Did God manipulate those spoken in the following scriptures or was that grace?

Acts 13:48 Now when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad and glorified the word of the Lord. And as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed.

Tong
R0597
 

Tong2020

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Both. We can not save ourselves, but we must humble ourselves in order for God to save us. So it's not about our work, but our submission to God's work.
Of course man cannot save himself. That is the bottom line.

And who do you say can humble themselves to God, if not them who knows God and have faith in God in the first place?

No matter how you try to avoid it, salvation is about God's will and work, not about man's will and work. That is why in scriptures, we can only read that salvation belongs to God.

Tong
R0598
 

Tong2020

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Totally missed my point. If they were born incapable of being saved, why would God have to harden them against him?
What do you mean by "incapable of being saved"?

Tong
R0599