I don’t clearly see that.
Can you post the two quotes you say conflict?
Acts 7:5 which is contrary to Genesis 13:15. Which parts of the scriptures do we need to believe?
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I don’t clearly see that.
Can you post the two quotes you say conflict?
Given his remarks maybe Jay Ross did too.ALL In! emailed them volunteering to help...
church is just a word describing the ecclessia . anyone who reads the KJV would know what the church is
ITS THE BODY of CHRIST . let us not war over words , rather expose real sin and error .
Not so. God sees the Church as a Body in Christ even though everyone may be scattered around the globe. Your reasoning is superficial. When there is a local assembly we do not know who is saved and who is not. But God looks at the globe at a glance and sees all those who are His children. And that is all that matters. Ideally every church should consist of the children of God. But God also allows the tares to remain with the wheat. And no man knows the heart of another.If it is not assembled.. it's not a body.
Not so. God sees the Church as a Body in Christ even though everyone may be scattered around the globe. Your reasoning is superficial. When there is a local assembly we do not know who is saved and who is not. But God looks at the globe at a glance and sees all those who are His children. And that is all that matters. Ideally every church should consist of the children of God. But God also allows the tares to remain with the wheat. And no man knows the heart of another.
True. But when you look at Christendom as a whole today, there will be genuine believers even within churches which have gone off the rails. So from God's perspective, each person who has been justified by grace through faith and redeemed by the blood of the Lamb is within the Body of Christ.The last thing is.. an actual NT church is always of an assembly of saved, baptised believers.
Acts 7:5 which is contrary to Genesis 13:15. Which parts of the scriptures do we need to believe?
Once they are truly born again they will not remain in said places for ever . They will begin feasting upon the bibleTrue. But when you look at Christendom as a whole today, there will be genuine believers even within churches which have gone off the rails. So from God's perspective, each person who has been justified by grace through faith and redeemed by the blood of the Lamb is within the Body of Christ.
Currently looks like "a minimal update in 2023"...Given his remarks maybe Jay Ross did too.
This is an older thread. Any news on the new planned updated version hitting the market as yet?
I disagree with your understanding.
You are trying to Find Scriptural Contradiction Without CONTEXT consideration.
Why is your presented context Flawed? Because the possession of the "Promised Land" as defined in Gen 15:17-21, which is part of a solemn sign covenant began to be fulfilled when Israel crossed the Jordan River. Their possession of the Promised Land climaxed during the Reign of Solomon and was slowly taken from them up and until 70 AD when all of Israel had been removed from the Promised Land such that they no longer had possession of any portion of the Promised Land. God in Exodus 20:4-6 warned the Israelites that if they continued to worship Idols then the iniquities of the first two ages of the existence of the Israelites practicing idolatrous worship would be visited on their children and the children's children during the third and fourth ages of the Israelites existence. This we are still witnessing today as the fourth age of Israel's existence has not reached its completion yet. That completion will occur when the Kings of the earth are gathered at Armageddon to be judged for their trampling of God's sanctuary and His earthly hosts, Israel. In Matt 24:31, Jesus indicated when the fourth age of the existence of the Israelites would end, when he told His disciples to learn the lesson from the Fig Tree, in that when they see the fig tree begin budding, then the Sumer Season would shortly start. God told Abraham in Gen 15:16 that some of his descendants would return to the Land of Canaan in the fourth age of their existence from the time of the Birth of Isaac. This prophecy was fulfilled after 4,000 years had passed.The Lesson IS :
Gods PROMISE for Abraham AND his Seed....to possess the Land Promised......HAS NOT “ YET “ come into Fruition!
***The PROMISE was GIVEN:
BEFORE Abraham HAD ONE offspring.
***The UNDERSTANDING IS:
The PROMISE SHALL BE FULFILLED....
AFTER ALL of Abraham’s seed HAS become BORN.
THEN SHALL Abraham and his Seed, Possess All the Promised Land!
***WHEN?
* After Gentiles and Jews and All Tribes of Israel “WHO ARE going to, DO SO, Freely Heartfully Choose Confessed Belief IN God AND Jesus the Christ...
* After Gods intervention of His Great Tribulations.
* After Christ’s 1,000 year reign.
* After Judgement Separating the Divided...With and Without God.
* After God Renews the Earth.
* After The New Jerusalem, is Sent Down from Heaven.
* Then Shall Gods PROMISE TO Abraham and his Seed To Possess the Land of the Whole Earth....Come into fruition and Become Fulfilled.
There are some problems with the KJV2000. It leaves some archaic words. It retains the archaic grammar of the KJV. It did away with italics. There are other problems too. So the KJV2000 is not adequate.The King James 2000 Bible has already accomplished this. Here is an example (Rom 13:2):
King James Bible
Whosoever therefore resisteth the power, resisteth the ordinance of God: and they that resist shall receive to themselves damnation.
King James 2000 Bible
Whosoever therefore resists the power, resists the ordinance of God: and they that resist shall receive to themselves judgment.
"Judgment" is accurate since that is what the Greek word κρίμα (krima)
means. "Damnation" means eternal Hell, which may or may not apply. But the KJV translators probably meant condemnation. Usage: (a) a judgment, a verdict; sometimes implying an adverse verdict, a condemnation, (b) a case at law, a lawsuit.
Plus I tried to download their PDF file to review it, but it locked up my computerThere are some problems with the KJV2000. It leaves some archaic words. It retains the archaic grammar of the KJV. It did away with italics. There are other problems too. So the KJV2000 is not adequate.
If that's the case (since frankly I have simply glanced at some of the equivalent verses) then I guess there is need for a proper update. The italics are necessary so that we know what was not in the original texts.There are some problems with the KJV2000. It leaves some archaic words. It retains the archaic grammar of the KJV. It did away with italics. There are other problems too. So the KJV2000 is not adequate.
The New Testament uses the Greek word for “Lord” for God’s personal name in the Old Testament when giving a translation out of the OT from Hebrew to Greek (compare Luke 3:4 with Isaiah 40:3 for an example). So what is the problem if the KJV does it when translating from Hebrew to English?Using YHWH instead of changing it to Adonai would be the greatest improvement in my opinion. That alteration has mislead many to think it is speaking about someone other than YHWH.
Just what I said BB, they changed YHWH to Adonai. Ps 110:1 gives you a prime example of the alteration. Here is the KJV and the ASV:The New Testament uses the Greek word for “Lord” for God’s personal name in the Old Testament when giving a translation out of the OT from Hebrew to Greek (compare Luke 3:4 with Isaiah 40:3 for an example). So what is the problem if the KJV does it when translating from Hebrew to English?
Since the word of God itself in its translation of Hebrew to Greek in the NT uses "Lord" for God's personal name in the Hebrew (יְהוָה), it justifies the KJV in doing the same in its translation from Hebrew to English. I do not know of a single occurrence in the NT of any stand alone form of God's personal Hebrew name in a translated quote from the OT that contains the name; when the NT quotes from the OT and that quote contains the name, it is normally changed to the Greek word for "Lord." So the KJV is following this same translation principle of the inspired Scriptures. It is not a problem.Just what I said BB, they changed YHWH to Adonai. Ps 110:1 gives you a prime example of the alteration. Here is the KJV and the ASV:
Ps 110:1 A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool
Ps 110:1 Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
One can see clearly these 2 versions render YHWH differently. These were translated by very educated people, and in all honesty most anyone who has just a mild understanding of Hebrew, can translate it into English rather easily. So one has to wonder why the alteration, especially in a verse that was a prophecy concerning Jesus. Since YHWH is not the same as Adonai, they why did some translators choose to render them both Lord, although they did choose to render YHWH as LORD, to show the designation. In some of those versions in the preface they give an explanation of why they chose to render it that way, but most do not. So it is up to us to examine it for ourselves, and reason on why some choose to render it that way. We live in the age of information and can simply "Google" it many times to see the whys and wherefores of things sir.
That is where the mistake lies BB, you perceive that Jehovah's name was not translated that way from the Greek, but perhaps you may not realize that the original writings no longer exist to anyones knowledge, and that many New Testament verses were quoted from Old testament verses that contained the Divine Name. The Bible should be translated as accurately as possible, only added to for understanding. Something as important as God's name should never be altered, especially since calling on His name is a requirement for salvation. Did you see the clear alteration of Ps 110:1? Do you feel that was done deliberately, and if so why do you think the translators did it that way?Since the word of God itself in its translation of Hebrew to Greek in the NT uses "Lord" for God's personal name in the Hebrew (יְהוָה), it justifies the KJV in doing the same in its translation from Hebrew to English. I do not know of a single occurrence in the NT of any stand alone form of God's personal Hebrew name in a translated quote from the OT that contains the name; when the NT quotes from the OT and that quote contains the name, it is normally changed to the Greek word for "Lord." So the KJV is following this same translation principle of the inspired Scriptures. It is not a problem.
That is where the mistake lies BB, you perceive that Jehovah's name was not translated that way from the Greek, but perhaps you may not realize that the original writings no longer exist to anyones knowledge, and that many New Testament verses were quoted from Old testament verses that contained the Divine Name. The Bible should be translated as accurately as possible, only added to for understanding. Something as important as God's name should never be altered, especially since calling on His name is a requirement for salvation. Did you see the clear alteration of Ps 110:1? Do you feel that was done deliberately, and if so why do you think the translators did it that way?