Paul does not contradict himself going from one chapter to another. Rom 3 or 5 do not contradict or nullify chapter 6.williemac said:Only one problem with this summary of Rom. 6. We are told in the previous chapter, 5, that righteousness is a free gift that comes to us by way of the obedience of ONE MAN (vs.19) We are also told there that we inherited by birth that sin which is causing our death (vs.12). In fact, Rom.5 begins with..."Therefore, having been justified by faith we have peace with God". It starts with 'therefore'. In other words, Paul did not write a bunch of letters to the Romans. He wrote one letter. And he in no way would contradict himself in one part with what he said in another.
So, whatever conclusions we come to in Rom.6, they cannot deny the fact that righteousness is a gift that comes to us by faith. So therefore, what obedience do we suppose is required in order to receive righteousness? Works of law? Or maybe the obedience of faith?
Are we going to annul everything Paul told the Romans about faith vs.works? What do we do with Rom.3:28? ..." Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith APART from the deeds of the law".
In ch.6, Paul was merely reasoning with them to behave according to what has been done in them through faith. He was appealing to their logic, that they have been (past tense) set free from sin and have become slaves of righteousness (vs.16). There is no way in heaven or hell that Paul was instructing them to set themselves free from sin by obeying the law.
But if we take your reply in so many words, that is exactly what it is implying, that it is our work to set ourselves free. If that is the case, then we were not really justified by faith, and we do not really have peace with God. By your standards, these would be arriving at a future date by way of our future or continual obedience to law. According to the sequence you are presenting, we are justified by faith so that we can be further justified, or continue to be justified, by obedience to law. I would go and read the letter to the Galatians, if I were you.
Furthermore, in his 1st letter to the Corinthians, Paul spoke of a man who was in sexual sin. In ch.5:5 he spoke of delivering that man to Satan for the destruction of his flesh..." so that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus".
The fact is, our old man of the flesh is considered to be dead in Christ, crucified with him. The sentence of death has already been pronounced upon the par of us that contains the sin nature of Adam. But our new man, our spirit, is the part of us that contains the righteousness and holiness of God (Eph.4:24).
So whatever death anyone supposes that a Christian will encounter because of sin, they had better think twice if they think it amounts to the loss of justification to life and salvation. As Paul also spoke of our works in 1Cor.3:15..."if anyone's work is burned, he will suffer loss. But he himself will be saved, yet as through fire"
There is no faith only to be found in Rom 3 or 5.
Rom 5 says we are justified by faith not faith only nor does Rom 5 each inherited sin. Paul says "and so death passed upon all men" Why has death passed upon all men? "for that all have sinned" Note Paul did not say death passed upon all for all have inherited Adam's sin. men are sinners for they of their own free will choose to sin. (If you would like to continue discussion on this topic there is a thread entitled 'Are babies born without sin' I would be glad to discuss it there,
Rom 3:28 "Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith APART from the deeds of the law".
This does NOT say a man is justified apart from any and every kind of works but man is justified apart from works of the OT law. Paul was having to deal with Judiazing teachers that said one cannot be saved apart from OT circumcision, Acts 15:1,2,3 So a man is not justified by keeping works of the OT law but is justified by obeying from the heart that form of doctrine, that is obeying Christ's NT in submitting to water baptism where sins are remitted Acts 2:38 and man is then justified.
No where have I ever said one is justified by keeping the OT law. SO the question remains, is one serving sin unto death or obedience unto righteousness?
The Christian at Corinth had committed fornication and fallen from salvation " so that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus"
This makes no sense if salvation cannot be lost. Can a Christian commit fornication and maintain his salvation? No.
In the context of 1 Cor 3:15 the "works" Paul speaks of in this context are converts. So if a work/convert of Paul is judged to be saved on judgment day then Paul will receive a reward for that work/convert, if Paul's work/convert is judged to be lost (burned) then Paul will suffer a sense of loss over that work/convert but Paul himself will still be saved if he has remained faithful, 1 Cor 9:27