stunnedbygrace
Well-Known Member
In Hebrew, in the OT, it does translate as “sons of God” in many places where it’s talking about angels, including in Job 38. I’m okay with someone thinking it was translated poorly into English and should read “angels” rather than “sons of God.” But in that case, the disputed verse in Genesis would ALSO have to be changed from sons of God to angels, wouldn’t it…? We are talking about the OT here, and what is considered an imperfect translation into English, right?