The 4 different groups in Acts

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ChristisGod

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These were one time events unique in the early church which were not repeated.

1. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the church in Jerusalem (the Jews) (Acts 2:1-11).

2. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the Gentiles (Acts 10:44-46).

3. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the Samaritans (half Jewish, half Gentile) (Acts 8:5, 12-17).

4. The Holy Spirit was poured on John the Baptists followers (Acts 19:1-7).

Above there were 4 distinct groups in Acts where we see the Holy Spirit baptism that was unique and a one time event to prove they had received the same Spirit baptism and were to be accepted into the church as we see happening on the day of Pentecost with the Jews.

Why do people today try to repeat the unique events of Acts ?

hope this helps !!!
 
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CharismaticLady

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These were one time events unique in the early church which were not repeated.

1. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the church in Jerusalem (the Jews) (Acts 2:1-11).

2. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the Gentiles (Acts 10:44-46).

3. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the Samaritans (half Jewish, half Gentile) (Acts 8:5, 12-17).

4. The Holy Spirit was poured on John the Baptists followers (Acts 19:1-7).

Above there were 4 distinct groups in Acts where we see the Holy Spirit baptism that was unique and a one time event to prove they had received the same Spirit baptism and were to be accepted into the church as we see happening on the day of Pentecost with the Jews.

Why do people today try to repeat the unique events of Acts ?

hope this helps !!!

Evidently you don't know that the Spirit will come as the early and latter rains, thus with a dry spell in between. We have been in the season of the latter rain since early last century, having to do with the sowing and now the harvest. You would have to be blind or very biased not to see that the Holy Spirit has come with signs following.
 

Hidden In Him

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These were one time events unique in the early church which were not repeated.

1. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the church in Jerusalem (the Jews) (Acts 2:1-11).

2. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the Gentiles (Acts 10:44-46).

3. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the Samaritans (half Jewish, half Gentile) (Acts 8:5, 12-17).

4. The Holy Spirit was poured on John the Baptists followers (Acts 19:1-7).

Hey, Christophany.

I think even the passages you are citing contradict your argument. That, and if there were only four, what was Paul referring to in 1st Corinthians? Obviously "the outpouring upon the Gentiles" lasted for decades, and hundreds of years into the early church. It seems to be an artificially contrived argument, which makes me ask why would want to present it. Seems to be an attempt to explain away the experiences arbitrarily.
 

CharismaticLady

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Because they do not study Acts properly.

If you believe the disciples were SPEAKING the known languages of those devout Jews and they HEARD them naturally, that is UNSCRIPTURAL. 1 Corinthians 14:2. Not only were the tongues supernatural, but the HEARING was also supernatural. (Interpretation of tongues).
 
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Enoch111

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If you believe the disciples were SPEAKING the known languages of those devout Jews and they HEARD them naturally, that is UNSCRIPTURAL. 1 Corinthians 14:2. Not only were the tongues supernatural, but the HEARING was also supernatural. (Interpretation of tongues).
This is what I meant by people not studying Acts properly, and imposing their preconceptions on what is written.
 
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CharismaticLady

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This is what I meant by people not studying Acts properly, and imposing their preconceptions on what is written.

Enoch, show me where in the Bible that tongues are to be used without the gift of interpretation of tongues. If you read Acts 2 properly, you would see that it does not contradict 1 Corinthians 14:2 as you are forcing it to do, but actually reads that they were surprised and confused that how could each one of different languages HEAR ALL THE DISCIPLES SPEAKING THEIR OWN LANGUAGE (LIKE A CHOIR). Yet another heard the same thing, but only in their own language. It is funny that you accuse me of doing what you, yourself, and millions of others do - human reasoning, and not understanding the subtle emphasis on the hearing, rather than on the speaking. This is a case of look in the mirror.
 

ChristisGod

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Because they do not study Acts properly.
Indeed in fact its self explanatory below in Acts 2 where the different nations/languages/peoples below heard the disciples speak to them in THEIR own languages not the native language of the disciples.

Tongues = languages right in the text.

When they heard this sound, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one heard their own language being spoken. 7 Utterly amazed, they asked: “Aren’t all these who are speaking Galileans? 8 Then how is it that each of us hears them in our native language? 9 Parthians, Medes and Elamites; residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10 Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya near Cyrene; visitors from Rome 11 (both Jews and converts to Judaism); Cretans and Arabs—we hear them declaring the wonders of God in our own tongues!
 

CharismaticLady

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Indeed in fact its self explanatory below in Acts 2 where the different nations/languages/peoples below heard the disciples speak to them in THEIR own languages not the native language of the disciples.

Tongues = languages right in the text.

When they heard this sound, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one heard their own language being spoken. 7 Utterly amazed, they asked: “Aren’t all these who are speaking Galileans? 8 Then how is it that each of us hears them in our native language? 9 Parthians, Medes and Elamites; residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10 Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya near Cyrene; visitors from Rome 11 (both Jews and converts to Judaism); Cretans and Arabs—we hear them declaring the wonders of God in our own tongues!


ROFL You are looking right at it, even underlining, and still don't see it.

When they heard this sound, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one heard their own language being spoken. 7 Utterly amazed, they asked: “Aren’t all these who are speaking Galileans? 8 Then how is it that each of us hears THEM in our native language? 9 Parthians, Medes and Elamites; residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10 Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya near Cyrene; visitors from Rome 11 (both Jews and converts to Judaism); Cretans and Arabs—we hear them declaring the wonders of God in our own tongues!”

Each devout Jew HEARD all of them in their own language. So the Asians heard all of them speaking in their language. The Medes heard all of them speaking in their language. The Egyptians heard all of them speaking in their language.

Don't you get it? Tongues cannot be understood naturally - for no man understands - without the supernatural gift of interpretation. EACH devout Jew, key word devout, received the sign of interpretation of tongues. THAT is why they were all amazed. The Gentiles to whom the gospel was not for yet, ONLY HEARD GIBBERISH and thought they were drunk.
 

ChristisGod

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Enoch, show me where in the Bible that tongues are to be used without the gift of interpretation of tongues. If you read Acts 2 properly, you would see that it does not contradict 1 Corinthians 14:2 as you are forcing it to do, but actually reads that they were surprised and confused that how could each one of different languages HEAR ALL THE DISCIPLES SPEAKING THEIR OWN LANGUAGE (LIKE A CHOIR). Yet another heard the same thing, but only in their own language. It is funny that you accuse me of doing what you, yourself, and millions of others do - human reasoning, and not understanding the subtle emphasis on the hearing, rather than on the speaking. This is a case of look in the mirror.
They( the crowd) thought they were drunk because they were all speaking different languages( the disciples).

How many disciples were present in Acts 2 ?

How many different languages were heard ?

Where was any INTERPRETATION of tongues mentioned in ACTS 2 ?
 

CharismaticLady

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They( the crowd) thought they were drunk because they were all speaking different languages( the disciples).

How many disciples were present in Acts 2 ?

How many different languages were heard ?

Where was any INTERPRETATION of tongues mentioned in ACTS 2 ?

The reader of Acts already knew about the rules of tongues as they being in the church already spoke in tongues. 1 Corinthians 14 was written 15 years BEFORE the Acts of the Apostles. If you want to believe that God contradicts His own word, then stay that way, ignorant, 1 Corinthians 14:38. I will take the rule, and read the account based on the rule. You take the account and change the rule. Silly! o_O

Just read the word with spiritual eyes. .heard ALL OF THEM speaking in their language
 

ChristisGod

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The reader of Acts already knew about the rules of tongues as they being in the church already spoke in tongues. 1 Corinthians 14 was written 15 years BEFORE the Acts of the Apostles. If you want to believe that God contradicts His own word, then stay that way, ignorant, 1 Corinthians 14:38. I will take the rule, and read the account based on the rule. You take the account and change the rule. Silly! o_O

Just read the word with spiritual eyes. .heard ALL OF THEM speaking in their language
the only rules are the ones in scripture not the one you just made up.

and the irony is all charismatics EMPHASIZE the least of the gifts(tongues) to make it the most prominent of the gifts which is the exact OPPOSITE of what Paul teaches which is to desire the GREATER GIFTS. its nothing but an "emotional" argument from that camp.

you are even unwilling to discuss the 4 groups in Acts and acts the question of why ? how are they different and how are they alike ?

hope this helps !!!
 

Enoch111

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Don't you get it? Tongues cannot be understood naturally - for no man understands - without the supernatural gift of interpretation.
This is PATENTLY FALSE because that is not what is stated in Isaiah 28:11,12 (which is quoted in 1 Corinthians 14:21):

For with stammering lips and another tongue will He speak to this people. To whom He said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.

What was Isaiah prophesying here? He was referring to the gift of tongues and saying that in spite of his servants speaking supernaturally in foreign languages -- to show that God was doing a miracle -- the Jews would not hear the Gospel. And that is exactly what we see in the book of Acts.

Only about 3,000 Jews were saved out of possibly 30,000 gathered in Jerusalem for the Feast of Pentecost. And right after that the apostles were persecuted and even imprisoned.
This is sufficient to show that the hearers were not given any special gift, since the majority were UNBELIEVING Jews!

The gift of interpretation of tongues was only given to believing Jews and Gentiles.
 

ChristisGod

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This is PATENTLY FALSE because that is not what is stated in Isaiah 28:11,12 (which is quoted in 1 Corinthians 14:21):

For with stammering lips and another tongue will He speak to this people. To whom He said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.

What was Isaiah prophesying here? He was referring to the gift of tongues and saying that in spite of his servants speaking supernaturally in foreign languages -- to show that God was doing a miracle -- the Jews would not hear the Gospel. And that is exactly what we see in the book of Acts.

Only about 3,000 Jews were saved out of possibly 30,000 gathered in Jerusalem for the Feast of Pentecost. And right after that the apostles were persecuted and even imprisoned.
This is sufficient to show that the hearers were not given any special gift, since the majority were UNBELIEVING Jews!

The gift of interpretation of tongues was only given to believing Jews and Gentiles.
Bingo great biblical response.
 
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CharismaticLady

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This is PATENTLY FALSE because that is not what is stated in Isaiah 28:11,12 (which is quoted in 1 Corinthians 14:21):

For with stammering lips and another tongue will He speak to this people. To whom He said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.

What was Isaiah prophesying here? He was referring to the gift of tongues and saying that in spite of his servants speaking supernaturally in foreign languages -- to show that God was doing a miracle -- the Jews would not hear the Gospel. And that is exactly what we see in the book of Acts.

Only about 3,000 Jews were saved out of possibly 30,000 gathered in Jerusalem for the Feast of Pentecost. And right after that the apostles were persecuted and even imprisoned.
This is sufficient to show that the hearers were not given any special gift, since the majority were UNBELIEVING Jews!

The gift of interpretation of tongues was only given to believing Jews and Gentiles.

Keep reading to verses 22 and 23. What do they mean?
 

CharismaticLady

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you are even unwilling to discuss the 4 groups in Acts and acts the question of why? how are they different and how are they alike?
Not sure what the fuss is all about. I agree, and here are the ways in which I agree. But what exactly you meant by the following seems strange:

These were one time events unique in the early church which were not repeated.

Right, the New Covenant of the Spirit had to start somewhere, and it was given in stages. But never ended! Did you think the Spirit never fell on anyone besides these:

1. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the church in Jerusalem (the Jews) (Acts 2:1-11).

Yes, because the gospel was originally only for the Jews, Luke 2:34, the Spirit was only given to the Jews, and any Gentiles around on that day that only heard gibberish.

3. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the Samaritans (half Jewish, half Gentile) (Acts 8:5, 12-17).

Yes, because the Spirit only fell in Jerusalem, the apostles had to travel to Samaria to start the Spirit there.

2. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the Gentiles (Acts 10:44-46).

Yes, because many Jews rejected Christ, the gospel of the Spirit was also given to the Gentiles, Romans 11, not just Cornelius and his family, but to any Gentile thereafter, like the Corinthians and Galatians, etc. that turned to Christ.

4. The Holy Spirit was poured on John the Baptists followers (Acts 19:1-7).

Yes, they were followers of John the Baptist and were to look for the "one who would come after him, and were only baptized into John's baptism of repentance. When they found out that Jesus was "the one" they were baptized in the name of Jesus, and immediately received the Holy Spirit.

Then how is it that each of us hears THEM in our native language?

What about this don't you understand? The emphasis was on the HEARING. What supernatural gift of the Spirit ALWAYS accompanies tongues in a gathering, and involves HEARING?

You really shouldn't try to teach on something you are clueless about.
 
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Waiting on him

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They( the crowd) thought they were drunk because they were all speaking different languages( the disciples).

How many disciples were present in Acts 2 ?

How many different languages were heard ?

Where was any INTERPRETATION of tongues mentioned in ACTS 2 ?
Bottom line it was a language not what’s proposed today.