This is from a post I made on another forum, and wish to share it here...
I think the main problem, when trying to synchronize the synoptic Gospels on the Olivet Discourse, is that we fail to see how Jesus connected the events of his own generation with the 2nd Coming. After all, that was the same confusion that the Disciples had at the time, and the reason why they asked about the 2nd Coming after Jesus had mentioned the imminent fall of the Temple.
In Ezekiel 12, the Babylonians were presently at the doors of Jerusalem, just like Jesus was indicating, in his Address, the Romans were. The Prophet makes it clear that Israel had been looking for a kind of Messianic deliverance, a "Day of the Lord," when God would come down and defeat the Babylonians and save the nation. But Ezekiel differentiated a current "Day of the Lord" from the future expectation of a "Day of the Lord" in which Israel would finally be delivered for all time.
To correct this false notion, that God's Coming will be to save Israel at that time, Ezekiel points out that this "Coming" will be for Judgment, and not for Salvation. And so, those who rejected the idea that God was mad at Israel began to declare that the current harassment by the Babylonians was not evidence of final judgment, but rather, something that would take place far off in the future.
Eze 12.21 The word of the Lord came to me: 22 “Son of man, what is this proverb you have in the land of Israel: ‘The days go by and every vision comes to nothing’? 23 Say to them, ‘This is what the Sovereign Lord says: I am going to put an end to this proverb, and they will no longer quote it in Israel.’ Say to them, ‘The days are near when every vision will be fulfilled. 24 For there will be no more false visions or flattering divinations among the people of Israel. 25 But I the Lord will speak what I will, and it shall be fulfilled without delay. For in your days, you rebellious people, I will fulfill whatever I say, declares the Sovereign Lord.’”
26 The word of the Lord came to me: 27 “Son of man, the Israelites are saying, ‘The vision he sees is for many years from now, and he prophesies about the distant future.’
28 “Therefore say to them, ‘This is what the Sovereign Lord says: None of my words will be delayed any longer; whatever I say will be fulfilled, declares the Sovereign Lord.’”
So it's critical here to understand that Israel, in Ezekiel's time, had the "Day of the Lord" all wrong, thinking it would bring deliverance, instead of judgment. Any judgment against Israel was far off into the future and nothing to do with what God was bringing to them in their own time.
In the Olivet Discourse we have the same situation. The Pharisees and religious leaders denied that the Romans were anything more than a temporary phenomenon. The "Day of the Lord" would soon arrive, with the Messianic Kingdom, and the Romans would be destroyed, saving Israel.
But Jesus made it clear that the Romans were a sign of impending judgment, that the "Day of the Lord" would bring imminent judgment, and was not far off into the future. He was not denying a future Day of Salvation at his Coming, but was prophesying the imminent destruction of their temple, just as it hat taken place in Ezekiel's time. In fact, Jesus assumed the same name, the "Son of Man," that Ezekiel had taken.
So we have all of this confusion about what Luke meant when he said a "Day" was coming when Jews would have to come down from their housetops and run for the hills. What did this have to do with the eschatological "Day of the Lord?"
Well, it does, because Jesus was defining the "Day of the Lord" as not only future, but also present. The "Day of the Lord" has two aspects to it, and not just one. It does mean final Salvation for national Israel, but not for all of the Jews.
In his time Jesus said the "Day of the Lord" will mean judgment, just as it will when he comes again. The "Son of Man" will return to judge Israel's enemies, but some of his enemies will be wicked Jews. And not only will he judge them at his Coming, but he will also judge them in his own generation.
And just as the future "Day of the Lord" will bring final Salvation for Israel, that Salvation was already present in those who had faith. They already had "Eternal Life." As long as Jesus was there with them, the Kingdom of God was already "near."
So we simply must get the context right, as well as the understanding Jesus had about the "Day of the Lord." There is, of course, the eschatological context. But there was also the present context. Jesus did not see them as conflicting or contradictory. His judgment one day will be final, but it could be comprehensive in history, as well. And Israel's experience at that time was the example for all nations that would see the "Day of the Lord."
Amos 5.18 Woe to you who long for the day of the Lord! Why do you long for the day of the Lord? That day will be darkness, not light.
I think the main problem, when trying to synchronize the synoptic Gospels on the Olivet Discourse, is that we fail to see how Jesus connected the events of his own generation with the 2nd Coming. After all, that was the same confusion that the Disciples had at the time, and the reason why they asked about the 2nd Coming after Jesus had mentioned the imminent fall of the Temple.
In Ezekiel 12, the Babylonians were presently at the doors of Jerusalem, just like Jesus was indicating, in his Address, the Romans were. The Prophet makes it clear that Israel had been looking for a kind of Messianic deliverance, a "Day of the Lord," when God would come down and defeat the Babylonians and save the nation. But Ezekiel differentiated a current "Day of the Lord" from the future expectation of a "Day of the Lord" in which Israel would finally be delivered for all time.
To correct this false notion, that God's Coming will be to save Israel at that time, Ezekiel points out that this "Coming" will be for Judgment, and not for Salvation. And so, those who rejected the idea that God was mad at Israel began to declare that the current harassment by the Babylonians was not evidence of final judgment, but rather, something that would take place far off in the future.
Eze 12.21 The word of the Lord came to me: 22 “Son of man, what is this proverb you have in the land of Israel: ‘The days go by and every vision comes to nothing’? 23 Say to them, ‘This is what the Sovereign Lord says: I am going to put an end to this proverb, and they will no longer quote it in Israel.’ Say to them, ‘The days are near when every vision will be fulfilled. 24 For there will be no more false visions or flattering divinations among the people of Israel. 25 But I the Lord will speak what I will, and it shall be fulfilled without delay. For in your days, you rebellious people, I will fulfill whatever I say, declares the Sovereign Lord.’”
26 The word of the Lord came to me: 27 “Son of man, the Israelites are saying, ‘The vision he sees is for many years from now, and he prophesies about the distant future.’
28 “Therefore say to them, ‘This is what the Sovereign Lord says: None of my words will be delayed any longer; whatever I say will be fulfilled, declares the Sovereign Lord.’”
So it's critical here to understand that Israel, in Ezekiel's time, had the "Day of the Lord" all wrong, thinking it would bring deliverance, instead of judgment. Any judgment against Israel was far off into the future and nothing to do with what God was bringing to them in their own time.
In the Olivet Discourse we have the same situation. The Pharisees and religious leaders denied that the Romans were anything more than a temporary phenomenon. The "Day of the Lord" would soon arrive, with the Messianic Kingdom, and the Romans would be destroyed, saving Israel.
But Jesus made it clear that the Romans were a sign of impending judgment, that the "Day of the Lord" would bring imminent judgment, and was not far off into the future. He was not denying a future Day of Salvation at his Coming, but was prophesying the imminent destruction of their temple, just as it hat taken place in Ezekiel's time. In fact, Jesus assumed the same name, the "Son of Man," that Ezekiel had taken.
So we have all of this confusion about what Luke meant when he said a "Day" was coming when Jews would have to come down from their housetops and run for the hills. What did this have to do with the eschatological "Day of the Lord?"
Well, it does, because Jesus was defining the "Day of the Lord" as not only future, but also present. The "Day of the Lord" has two aspects to it, and not just one. It does mean final Salvation for national Israel, but not for all of the Jews.
In his time Jesus said the "Day of the Lord" will mean judgment, just as it will when he comes again. The "Son of Man" will return to judge Israel's enemies, but some of his enemies will be wicked Jews. And not only will he judge them at his Coming, but he will also judge them in his own generation.
And just as the future "Day of the Lord" will bring final Salvation for Israel, that Salvation was already present in those who had faith. They already had "Eternal Life." As long as Jesus was there with them, the Kingdom of God was already "near."
So we simply must get the context right, as well as the understanding Jesus had about the "Day of the Lord." There is, of course, the eschatological context. But there was also the present context. Jesus did not see them as conflicting or contradictory. His judgment one day will be final, but it could be comprehensive in history, as well. And Israel's experience at that time was the example for all nations that would see the "Day of the Lord."
Amos 5.18 Woe to you who long for the day of the Lord! Why do you long for the day of the Lord? That day will be darkness, not light.
