Dcopymope
Well-Known Member
The Lord is fully capable of manifesting in whatever form. But the biblical answer to that question, is that they saw Him in the spirit.
So I can see a spirit with the naked eye?
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The Lord is fully capable of manifesting in whatever form. But the biblical answer to that question, is that they saw Him in the spirit.
GINOLJC. I see what you're saying but the article makes no sense without the holy Spirit, which I agree with you on. but common sense can clear up this misunderstanding. A. a transliteration is only good as the belief in it. meaning it's not an exact translation, for if it was, it wouldn't be believable. because trying to translate letter for letter would result in some unknown names. Like the name Jesus , a transliteration, which is rendered from Yeshua. for the transliteration is use in function to covey an idea, which language is all about. example, in the Hebrew, hands are a "feminine" noun, listen Exodus 17:12 "But Moses' hands were heavy; and they took a stone, and put it under him, and he sat thereon; and Aaron and Hur stayed up his hands, the one on the one side, and the other on the other side; and his hands were steady until the going down of the sun". here, Moses "HANDS" is the Hebrew word, H3027 יָד yad (yawd) n-f. notice it's a feminine noun, but the hands here, is on a MALE.Well i use teh KJ too but it is as corrupt as all the rest. See here
Trust God and the Holy Spirit, He was sent for a reason.
And Elisha prayed, “Open his eyes, Lord , so that he may see.” Then the Lord opened the servant’s eyes, and he looked and saw the hills full of horses and chariots of fire all around Elisha.So I can see a spirit with the naked eye?
And Elisha prayed, “Open his eyes, Lord , so that he may see.” Then the Lord opened the servant’s eyes, and he looked and saw the hills full of horses and chariots of fire all around Elisha.
2 Kings 6:17 NIV
the opening of eyes was done by the LORD himself, not the young lad, meaning not his naked eyes.And Elisha prayed, “Open his eyes, Lord , so that he may see.” Then the Lord opened the servant’s eyes, and he looked and saw the hills full of horses and chariots of fire all around Elisha.
2 Kings 6:17 NIV
the opening of eyes was done by the LORD himself, not the young lad, meaning not his naked eyes.
second, the Lord Jesus was seen, manifested by the body he had. this is an infallible proof of his resurrection.
By spirit, I'm referring to God's spirit, the one that no man could possibly look upon without killing them. The angel that removed the rock of Christs tomb appeared in more otherworldly fashion, with a face "like lightning", whatever thats supposed to mean. Surely, we all know an angel can physically appear in its more heavenly form, but can Jesus Christ, being the same alpha and omega spoken of in the old testament appear in his purest form without certain death?
Why "no one can see my face and live" is a pretty deep question. I've heard some interesting conjectures. Probably something to do with Judgement. Perhaps then he can appear to people who are written in the book.
Any talk of any kind of religion was taboo in our entire family, especially at gatherings......I thought there was something 'bigger' but had thought it wouldn't matter till after people died.That's a word of knowledge.
If you don't mind saying, when he appeared to you what state was your heart in before that? Were you atheist that didn't want to believe, didn't trust Christians, didn't care, or something else?
The book of life doesn't answer the question because he simply never has nor would he ever appear in heavenly form, knowing that if we were to see him we'd be deader than a doorknob. People seem confused about those verses referring to the book of life and Jesus being chosen before the foundation of the world. To God, there is no "past, present and future", because what we call the future has already occurred to God. That's why he is the first that ever was and the last that ever will be. This is why he can say that all have sinned just like Adam and fallen short of his glory, because to God, its already occurred. Its not just about our sinful nature.
No, the naked eye is flesh, to which the spirit is unseen. If we see in the spirit, it is because we are in the spirit, having been born again of the spirit of God, a new creation. As it is written:So I can see a spirit with the naked eye?
No, the naked eye is flesh, to which the spirit is unseen. If we see in the spirit, it is because we are in the spirit, having been born again of the spirit of God, a new creation. As it is written:
1 John 3:2
"Beloved, now we are children of God; and it has not yet been revealed what we shall be, but we know that when He is revealed, we shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as He is."
In 1 john we are told that the physical appearance of Jesus is unknown. "It has not yet been revealed what we shall be......we shall be like Him.....we shall see Him as He is".
If He is with me, the future is now, which was true also of "Today", when the Lord was crucified. But, as Paul explained He comes, "each in his own order."Uh huh, the scripture you cited is obviously referring to his second coming, a future event, an event that is clearly described as witnessed by the whole world. Will the saints, being changed, see him coming with "power and great glory" differently then the way the world will see him? How would you compare this to God opening the eyes of Elisha so he can see " horses" and "chariots of fire" in 2 Kings 6? It doesn't seem as simple as we think it is.
Still though, the appearance of the angel at Christs tomb was unlike other accounts of angelic appearances where they always appeared purely as young men.
This is the ability of God to manifest at will. But just as it was witnessed in some accounts, not all see what is manifest, except to those of whom it is revealed.Plus, @ScottA I saw them both with my inner spiritual eye, and then with my open natural eyes..they were in the room.
GINOLJC, to all. @Scott. not saying that you're right or wrong on this ORDER, but I have a question. how can Jesus, as you say, is with you, and the future is, which is true also of "today" when the Lord was crucified. how can that be an order of HIM, God, the Lord Jesus?. is not all time is the same time for HIM. and not us. if the order apply to us, (which I believe it is), then it's not past, or future, only present for us at that time of the order, and id so, then that's not an order at all. I believe different on the order spoke of in 1 Corinthians 15:21, I believe this order is speaking of the resurrection of the dead. scripture, 1 Corinthians 15:21 "For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming". this is my belief. an "order" is a sequence of events that, EVERY MAN (all), participate in, either of the first order or resurrection which is Christ's, (his people), or the the second order, EVERY MAN (all) of the devil. the first order or resurrection of the dead takes place before the 1,000 year reign, the righteous and the second order of the wicked, takes place after. supportive scripture, Revelation 20:5 "But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection". so reading 1 Corinthians 15:21, the order is of the righteous first then the wicked. if I'm in error please correct me.If He is with me, the future is now, which was true also of "Today", when the Lord was crucified. But, as Paul explained He comes, "each in his own order."